- #1

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- 6

## Main Question or Discussion Point

I am wondering if it's possible for a relation to intercept with both it's derivative and indefinite integral at the same location (not including e^x as it shares the same rule as both it's integral and derivative). This is also assuming the constant of the indefinite integral is equal to zero.

Basically;

Basically;

**Define f(x) where the solution to f(x) = f'(x) is the same as the solution to f(x) = ∫f(x)dx, f(x) ≠ e^x and c = 0**