Can we use the fact that $L>1$ to show that the sequence is unbounded?

In summary, the conversation discusses how to prove that a sequence $\{x_n\}$ is not bounded and hence not convergent, given that the limit of $\frac{x_{n+1}}{x_n}$ is $L>1$. The conversation explores different approaches, including showing that the sequence is increasing and using Cauchy sequences, but ultimately acknowledges the need for further understanding of logarithms.
  • #1
OhMyMarkov
83
0
Hello everyone!

I am told that the limit of $\frac{x_{n+1}}{x_n}$ is $L>1$. I am asked to show that $\{x_n\}$ is not bounded and hence not convergent.

This is what I got so far:
Fix $\epsilon > 0$, $\exists n_0 \in N$ s.t. $\forall n > n_0$, we have
$|\frac{x_{n+1}}{x_n}-L|<\epsilon$.

Rearranging terms, we have:
$(L-\epsilon)\cdot x_n<x_{n+1}$

I'm stuck here, I want to show that there is an $M$ s.t. $x_n>M \; \forall n>n_1$ for some $n_1$. Thus the sequence is unbounded and converges to infinity. What I am thinking about is the following:
(1) Show that the sequence is increasing, then I get $x_n$ > $x_{n_1}$ which is a constant, but I don't know how.
(2) ... but then I don't know what to do with $\epsilon$ because it could be potentially bigger than $L$.
 
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  • #2
OhMyMarkov said:
Hello everyone!

I am told that the limit of $\frac{x_{n+1}}{x_n}$ is $L>1$. I am asked to show that $\{x_n\}$ is not bounded and hence not convergent.

This is what I got so far:
Fix $\epsilon > 0$, $\exists n_0 \in N$ s.t. $\forall n > n_0$, we have
$|\frac{x_{n+1}}{x_n}-L|<\epsilon$.

Rearranging terms, we have:
$(L-\epsilon)\cdot x_n<x_{n+1}$

I'm stuck here, I want to show that there is an $M$ s.t. $x_n>M \; \forall n>n_1$ for some $n_1$. Thus the sequence is unbounded and converges to infinity. What I am thinking about is the following:
(1) Show that the sequence is increasing, then I get $x_n$ > $x_{n_1}$ which is a constant, but I don't know how.
(2) ... but then I don't know what to do with $\epsilon$ because it could be potentially bigger than $L$.

Choose \(\varepsilon = (L+1)/2\) then there exists a \(n_0\) such that for all \(n>n_0\) we have:
\[\frac{x_{n+1}}{x_{n}} > L-\varepsilon>1\]

CB
 
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  • #3
Hello CaptainBlack, thank you for your reply!

I tried choosing an $\epsilon = L-1$ so that there is an $n_0$ for which all $n>n_0$, we have
$|\frac{x_{n+1}}{x_n}-L|<L-1$
or
$x_n<x_{n+1}<(2L-1)\cdot x_n$

I get $\forall n > n_0$, $x_n$ is increasing.

And I just remembered that I should show that $x_n>M$ for all possible $M$, not for some $M$.
 
  • #4
OhMyMarkov said:
Hello everyone!

I am told that the limit of $\frac{x_{n+1}}{x_n}$ is $L>1$. I am asked to show that $\{x_n\}$ is not bounded and hence not convergent.

This is what I got so far:
Fix $\epsilon > 0$, $\exists n_0 \in N$ s.t. $\forall n > n_0$, we have
$|\frac{x_{n+1}}{x_n}-L|<\epsilon$.

Rearranging terms, we have:
$(L-\epsilon)\cdot x_n<x_{n+1}$

I'm stuck here, I want to show that there is an $M$ s.t. $x_n>M \; \forall n>n_1$ for some $n_1$. Thus the sequence is unbounded and converges to infinity. What I am thinking about is the following:
(1) Show that the sequence is increasing, then I get $x_n$ > $x_{n_1}$ which is a constant, but I don't know how.
(2) ... but then I don't know what to do with $\epsilon$ because it could be potentially bigger than $L$.

Let's consider the sequence $\lambda_{n}= \ln x_{n}$ so that is...

$\displaystyle \Delta_{n}= \lambda_{n+1}-\lambda_{n}= f(\lambda_{n})$ (1)

The sequence $\lambda_{n}$ converges to some finite limit $\Lambda$ only if $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \Delta_{n}= 0$ but Your hypothesis says that that limit is >0, so that the sequence $\lambda_{n}$ diverges...

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
  • #5
Thanks for the reply.

I can see that the sequence converges, I have no problem with that. Moreover, I cannot use $\ln n$, we haven't covered logarithms yet, and won't be covering them probably.

Now I'm pretty sure there is a simple proof for this (perhaps a proof using Cauchy sequences).
 
  • #6
OhMyMarkov said:
... I cannot use $\ln x_{n}$, we haven't covered logarithms yet, and won't be covering them probably...

I wonder how one can threat problems of Analysis with no knowledge for the present and also for the future of the concept of logarithm... a great mistery!...Kind regards $\chi$ $\sigma$
 
  • #7
chisigma said:
I wonder how one can threat problems of Analysis with no knowledge for the present and also for the future of the concept of logarithm... a great mistery!...Kind regards $\chi$ $\sigma$

I really appreciate your help by all means. It's not that I don't know about logarithm (but I very much do), it's that I was looking for something besides it in my proof.
 
  • #8
OhMyMarkov said:
Hello CaptainBlack, thank you for your reply!

I tried choosing an $\epsilon = L-1$ so that there is an $n_0$ for which all $n>n_0$, we have
$|\frac{x_{n+1}}{x_n}-L|<L-1$
or
$x_n<x_{n+1}<(2L-1)\cdot x_n$

I get $\forall n > n_0$, $x_n$ is increasing.

And I just remembered that I should show that $x_n>M$ for all possible $M$, not for some $M$.

That the sequence is increasing is not sufficient to prove it unbounded.

CB
 
  • #9
chisigma said:
Let's consider the sequence $\lambda_{n}= \ln x_{n}$ so that is...

$\displaystyle \Delta_{n}= \lambda_{n+1}-\lambda_{n}= f(\lambda_{n})$ (1)

The sequence $\lambda_{n}$ converges to some finite limit $\Lambda$ only if $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \Delta_{n}= 0$ b

That the difference between consecutive terms goes to zero does not guarantee convergence. It is necessary but not sufficient. It looks as though you are saying it is necessary, if so that is OK.

CB
 
  • #10
How can I prove it unbounded? That was my question all along :eek:
 
  • #11
OhMyMarkov said:
How can I prove it unbounded? That was my question all along :eek:

Look at my first post in this thread (now that the obvious typo has been corrected), it shows that there is a \(c>1\) such that \(x_{n_0+k}>c^k x_{n_0}\) ...

CB
 
  • #12
Thank you Captain Black, I finally got it now, I'll continue it perhaps someone encounters the problem and comes looking for the solution:

we have $x_{n_0 +k}>c^k x_{n_0}$. But $n = n_0 + k$, we get:
$x_n>c^n\cdot (x_{n_0}c^{-n_0})=\alpha c^n$.

We know $c^n$ converges to $\infty$ because $c=|c|>1$, therefore, $x_n$ converges to $\infty$ as well.
 
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Related to Can we use the fact that $L>1$ to show that the sequence is unbounded?

1. What is the definition of convergence of sequence?

The convergence of sequence refers to the behavior of a sequence of numbers as its terms approach a certain value or limit. This means that as the sequence progresses, the terms get closer and closer to a specific number.

2. How is the convergence of sequence calculated?

The convergence of sequence is usually calculated by determining the limit of the sequence, which is the value that the terms approach as the sequence progresses. This can be done by using various mathematical techniques such as the squeeze theorem, ratio test, or root test.

3. What is the importance of convergence of sequence in mathematics?

The convergence of sequence is a fundamental concept in mathematics and is used in various fields such as calculus, analysis, and number theory. It helps in understanding the behavior of infinite series and plays a crucial role in proving the convergence of various mathematical equations and functions.

4. What are the different types of convergence of sequence?

There are several types of convergence of sequence, including pointwise convergence, uniform convergence, absolute convergence, and conditional convergence. Each type has its own specific definition and criteria for convergence.

5. Can a sequence converge to more than one limit?

No, a sequence can only converge to a single limit. This means that as the terms of the sequence get closer and closer to a specific value, they cannot simultaneously approach another value. However, a sequence can have multiple subsequences that converge to different limits.

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