Can You Help Me Answer Post #4 in Line 2?

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The discussion centers on the relationship between two functions, f(n) and g(n), both mapping natural numbers (N to N). It is established that if g(n) is not an upper bound on f(n), it does not imply that g(n) is a lower bound on f(n). The participants emphasize that f(n) is arbitrary and can be unbounded, raising questions about the nature of g(n) as a bound. The conversation highlights the need for clarity in defining the relationship between these functions to address unanswered queries effectively.

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Lets say if g(n) is not an upper bound on f(n), then does that mean g(n) is a lower bound on f(n)?
Can anyone help with this please?
 
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depends: how did you find g(n)? does f(n) have to be bounded at all?
 
They are functions that map N to N (natural numbers).
I guess f(n) is just an arbitrary function.
 
They are functions that map N to N (natural numbers).
I guess f(n) is just an arbitrary function.
... good, what I figured, and the answers to the questions?

Since f(n) is an arbitrary mapping N to N, does it have to be bounded? Can it not be unbounded in both directions? What does this say about g(n) as a bound?

You did not say that g(n) is arbitrary - so how is it found? Is it selected from all possible N to N mappings to have some special relationship with f(n)?
 
f(n) and g(n) is arbitrary. Both map from N to N.

I think that the statement in the first post is true but I just don't understand how to show this...
 
Line 2, post #4 remains unanswered. It is a repeat of a question asked in post #2.
(If you did answer it, I missed it.)

If you do not answer questions I cannot help you.
 

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