maverick280857
- 1,774
- 5
Hi,
Suppose we have a 2 site Hubbard model, with the hopping Hamiltonian given by H_t and the Coulomb interaction Hamiltonian given by \hat{H}_U. In the strong coupling limit (U/t >> 1), we define a canonical transformation of \hat{H} = \hat{H}_U + \hat{H}_t, as
H' = e^{-t\hat{O}}\hat{H}e^{t\hat{O}} = \hat{H} - t[\hat{O},\hat{H}] + \frac{t^2}{2}[\hat{O},[\hat{O},\hat{H}]] + \ldots
Atland and Simons say (on page 63):
I don't get this. Even if this choice is made,
\hat{H} - t[\hat{O}, \hat{H}] = (\hat{H}_U - t[\hat{O},\hat{H}_t]) + \underbrace{(\hat{H}_t - t[\hat{O},\hat{H}_U])}_{\mbox{0 by choice}} = \hat{H}_U - t[\hat{O},\hat{H}_t]
So there's still a t-dependent first order term. What's wrong here?
Suppose we have a 2 site Hubbard model, with the hopping Hamiltonian given by H_t and the Coulomb interaction Hamiltonian given by \hat{H}_U. In the strong coupling limit (U/t >> 1), we define a canonical transformation of \hat{H} = \hat{H}_U + \hat{H}_t, as
H' = e^{-t\hat{O}}\hat{H}e^{t\hat{O}} = \hat{H} - t[\hat{O},\hat{H}] + \frac{t^2}{2}[\hat{O},[\hat{O},\hat{H}]] + \ldots
Atland and Simons say (on page 63):
By choosing the operator \hat{O} such that \hat{H}_t - t[\hat{O}, \hat{H}_U] = 0, all terms at first order in t can be eliminated from the transformed Hamiltonian. As a result, the effective Hamiltonian is brought to the form
\hat{H}' = \hat{H}_U + \frac{t}{2}[\hat{H}_t, \hat{O}] + O(t^3)
I don't get this. Even if this choice is made,
\hat{H} - t[\hat{O}, \hat{H}] = (\hat{H}_U - t[\hat{O},\hat{H}_t]) + \underbrace{(\hat{H}_t - t[\hat{O},\hat{H}_U])}_{\mbox{0 by choice}} = \hat{H}_U - t[\hat{O},\hat{H}_t]
So there's still a t-dependent first order term. What's wrong here?
Last edited: