Eternals said:
Thanks a lot for your replies! I think I understand this better now. I have a few more questions left:
1) If I understood correctly, multiplying both sides does not always lead to equivalent statements. So, when do you know if the implications can go in both directions?
It will always be true when the transformation is invertible -- in this case, when the number has an inverse you can multiply by.
With modular arithmetic, you can often make the transform invertible by adjusting the modulus, though I'd have to do some work to figure out what adjustments are valid.
Robert1986, I think, thought you were asking a different question than you really were -- the question of "if the LHS and RHS really are equal in the original statement, will they also be equal in the new statement?"
2) Do you always have to multiply by the multiplicative inverse to solve this? For example, 4x = 2 (mod 6). Then 4 has no multiplicative inverse, but there are still some solutions to x, for example x = 2.
Again I'd have to do a bit of work to remind myself, but I think that if
d divides the modulus and both the LHS and RHS (when viewed as equations of integers), then you get an equivalent statement by dividing all three of the L.H.S., the R.H.S., and the modulus by
d.
Also, a standard approach to solving modular equations is to split it into primary parts -- in this case look at the equation modulo 2 and modulo 3, then use the Chinese Remainder problem to reassemble the solution.
In case there's a prime power (e.g. modulo 4), it usually isn't hard to solve things modulo 2, then use that to work out the solutions modulo 4, then modulo 8, and so forth. A systematic approach exists via "Hensel's Lemma" and/or using p-adic analysis.