Can't understand a detail in paracompactness->normality

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I seem to have stuck an obvious(?) detail in the proof of this theorem. We first show that a Hausdorff paracompact space is regular. Let X be a Hausdorff paracompact space, K be a closed subset of X, and x\in X-K. Since X is Hausdorff there exists an open cover \{ V_y: \; y\in K \} such that y\in V_yand x \in X-\overline{V}_y. Let B be a locally finite refinement of the collection \{ V_y: \; y\in K \}\cup\{X-K\} and U = \cup \{W\in B: \; K\cap W\neq \emptyset\}. What I cannot understand is why U contains K.
 
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Re-read the definition of ## U ## - is ## K ## one of those sets ## W \in B##?
 
I think get it now. Willard states that a topological space X is paracomact iff any cover of X has an open locally finite refinement. It does not necessarilly implies that it covers X. Munkres however states that this refinement does cover X, so U should cover K.
 
Yeah forget what I said, that was silly. The point is that any ## y\in K ## is in some ## W\in B ## since ## B ## is a cover. Obviously for that ##W, y\in W\cap K## so ##W\cap K \neq \emptyset##, hence ##y \in U##
 
A sphere as topological manifold can be defined by gluing together the boundary of two disk. Basically one starts assigning each disk the subspace topology from ##\mathbb R^2## and then taking the quotient topology obtained by gluing their boundaries. Starting from the above definition of 2-sphere as topological manifold, shows that it is homeomorphic to the "embedded" sphere understood as subset of ##\mathbb R^3## in the subspace topology.
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