Cantor-schroder-bernstein use in proof

  • Thread starter jaqueh
  • Start date
  • Tags
    Proof
In summary, the Bernstein theorem states that if the cardinal number of set A is less than or equal to the cardinal number of set B, and the cardinal number of set B is less than or equal to the cardinal number of set A, then the cardinal number of set A is equal to the cardinal number of set B. In this problem, if set A is a subset of the real numbers and there exists an open interval (a,b) that is also a subset of A, then the cardinal number of A is equal to the cardinal number of the continuum. This can be proven by using the fact that (a,b) is equivalent to the continuum and the fact that A is a subset of the real numbers.
  • #1
jaqueh
57
0

Homework Statement


Use the berstein theorem to show: if A[itex]\subseteq[/itex]ℝ and there exists an open interval (a,b) such that (a,b)[itex]\subseteq[/itex]A, then the cardinal number of A=ℂ


Homework Equations


The theorem states that if card(A)≤card(B) and card(B)≤card(A), then card(A)=card(B)


The Attempt at a Solution


I don't know what is relevant and what the open interval (a,b) implies. I know that (a,b) is a subset of ℝ and its equivalent to ℂ, but i don't know if I am supposed to prove that or what I am supposed to do at all
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
I never used this theorem before, but I think I understand why it is used. Do you have any theorems that relate subsets to cardinalities? If [itex]A \subset B[/itex], then card(A) ? card(B).
 
  • #3
yes if a subset b then card(a)≤card(b), aka there exists an F:A-(1-1)->B
 
  • #4
Okay, good. I think this proof is pretty easy now, right?

You have [itex](a,b) \subseteq A[/itex], so what is true about their cardinalities? You already told us that card((a,b)) is the continuum.

You also have [itex]A \subseteq \mathbb{R}[/itex], so what is true about their cardnalities?

I think at this point you can apply the theorem to get your final line of the proof!
 
  • #5
well i guess c=(a,b) ≤ A and A≤ R=c , but can i assume that (a,b) is equal to c?
 
  • #6
jaqueh said:
I know that (a,b) is a subset of ℝ and its equivalent to ℂ, but i don't know if I am supposed to prove that or what I am supposed to do at all

I thought when you stated this line that you knew card((a,b)) is the continuum. Did you not prove this in a theorem yet? It turns out that card((a,b)) is the continuum, but if you didn't prove that, you might need to take a different approach.

In real analysis, that fact was one of the first thing we proved involving cardnalities, so I would assume you have that at your disposal?
 
  • #7
i don't have that at my disposal because this is just a proof writing class, i don't know how i would prove that (a,b) is the continuum using what i know though. that is the main bit that is confusing me
 

FAQ: Cantor-schroder-bernstein use in proof

What is the Cantor-schroder-bernstein theorem?

The Cantor-schroder-bernstein theorem is a mathematical theorem that states that if there are two sets A and B, and there exists an injective function from A to B and an injective function from B to A, then there exists a bijective function between A and B.

Why is the Cantor-schroder-bernstein theorem important?

The Cantor-schroder-bernstein theorem is important because it provides a method for proving that two sets have the same cardinality, or size. This can be useful in various mathematical proofs and applications.

How is the Cantor-schroder-bernstein theorem used in proof?

The Cantor-schroder-bernstein theorem is used in proof by providing a way to show that two sets have the same cardinality. This is done by finding two injective functions between the sets, which then implies the existence of a bijective function and therefore shows that the sets have the same size.

Can the Cantor-schroder-bernstein theorem be used to compare infinite sets?

Yes, the Cantor-schroder-bernstein theorem can be used to compare infinite sets. This is because the theorem only relies on the existence of injective functions, which can be found for infinite sets as well.

Are there any limitations to using the Cantor-schroder-bernstein theorem?

Yes, there are limitations to using the Cantor-schroder-bernstein theorem. It can only be applied to sets of the same cardinality, and it does not provide a way to determine the actual size of the sets, only that they are the same. Additionally, it cannot be used to compare sets with different cardinalities.

Back
Top