steven187
- 176
- 0
hello all
I found this rather interesting
suppose that a sequence {x_{n}} satisfies
|x_{n+1}-x_{n}|<\frac{1}{n+1} \forall n\epsilon N
how couldn't the sequence {x_{n}} not be cauchy? I tried to think of some examples to disprove it but i didnt achieve anything doing that, please help
thanxs
I found this rather interesting
suppose that a sequence {x_{n}} satisfies
|x_{n+1}-x_{n}|<\frac{1}{n+1} \forall n\epsilon N
how couldn't the sequence {x_{n}} not be cauchy? I tried to think of some examples to disprove it but i didnt achieve anything doing that, please help
thanxs