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Homework Statement
Use Cauchy's Integral Formula to compute the following integral:
[tex]\int_{|z|=2\pi}\frac{\pi \sin(z)}{z(z-\pi)}dz[/tex]
Homework Equations
[tex]\int_C \frac{f(z)dz}{z-z_0}=2\pi if(z_0)[/tex]
The Attempt at a Solution
If we let
[tex]f(z)=\frac{\pi \sin(z)}{z}[/tex]
and
[tex]z_0=\pi[/tex]
Then
[tex]\int_{|z|=2\pi}\frac{\pi \sin(z)/z}{(z-\pi)}dz=0[/tex]
Is this correct? I'm concerned about the fact that the function isn't differentiable at z=pi and that pi is an interior point of C...Part of me thinks that this integral cannot be evaluated with Cauchy's formula, but I do not yet understand the subject matter well enough to know for sure.