Centripetal force discussion question (Washing machine).

AI Thread Summary
The spin cycle of a washing machine is designed to remove water from clothes by utilizing centripetal acceleration, which is calculated as a = V^2/r, where V is the rotational speed and r is the drum's radius. As the drum spins, a centripetal force acts toward its center, causing the clothes and water to move outward, with water particles exiting through holes in the drum. However, water clings to clothes, delaying its escape and indicating that it experiences some centripetal acceleration. The interaction between the clothes also helps to expel water as they compress against each other during the spin cycle. Understanding these dynamics is crucial for grasping the physics behind the washing machine's operation.
goodfellow
Messages
7
Reaction score
0
Note: This discussion question is from my University Textbook, as it so happens you can only get the solutions to half of the odd numbered exercise questions...

Disclaimer: I have been trying to wrap my head around this answer for a good 5 hours now, so it's not like I'm coming here to be spoon fed.

Anyway, the question:

"What is the purpose of the spin cycle of a washing machine? Explain in terms of acceleration components"

My answer:

The purpose of a spin cycle of a washing machine is to remove water from clothes.

The drum of radius, r, rotating with speed, v, will have a centripetal acceleration a = V^2/r which is provided by a centripetal force, acting toward the centre of the drum, which in turn has an equal and opposite reaction (centrifugal?) force.

The inertia of the clothes and the water particles causes them to keep moving in a straight line, that with the combination of the reaction force, causes them to move around the edge of the drum and the water particles move out through the holes in the drum, which then fly off at a tangent to the drum's rotation.
-----------------

But then I watched this lecture from MIT and he explained a similar situation with water particles in a test tube and said that they experience no centripetal force:

Please watch from 17:30 to 19:06

Immediately after he then does an identical experiment to my question (lettuce in a siv) and links it to his previous explanation.

So now I feel like an idiot, even though he has gone through almost a identical experiment I can not find a way to intuitively explain what is happening.

If anyone could talk me through this I would greatly appreciate it. I have 25 more lecture topics from this past semester to fully understand before the end of the christmas break!
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Physics news on Phys.org
The marble slides toward the outward end of the tube until it hits the end. At that point, if there's a hole big enough for the marble to escape out of it just keeps going.

Same thing with the washing machine, except it's droplets of water and the holes are big enough for the water but your clothes stay inside.

There's a confounding factor, which is that water tends to cling to your clothes, so it takes some time for the water to make it through the layers of clothes. Since the water (at least some of it) doesn't just go flying out, it means it does experience some centripetal acceleration.

While all that's going on, the clothes also get smashed up against each other on the inside of the drum. You can imagine that also helping to squeeze the water out of the clothes.
 
Thanks, I was going to write something along the lines of that bout the 'explain in terms of acceleration components' was throwing me off.
 
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
Thread 'Beam on an inclined plane'
Hello! I have a question regarding a beam on an inclined plane. I was considering a beam resting on two supports attached to an inclined plane. I was almost sure that the lower support must be more loaded. My imagination about this problem is shown in the picture below. Here is how I wrote the condition of equilibrium forces: $$ \begin{cases} F_{g\parallel}=F_{t1}+F_{t2}, \\ F_{g\perp}=F_{r1}+F_{r2} \end{cases}. $$ On the other hand...

Similar threads

Back
Top