Charged particle in Electric and Magnetic field

  • #1
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Homework Statement



A particle of specific charge q/m is projected from the origin of coordinates with initial velocity ##v_1\hat{i}+v_2\hat{j}## in space having uniform electric field and magnetic field as ##-E\hat{j}## and ##-B\hat{j}## respectively. The particle will definitely return to the origin once if

A) ##\frac{v_1B}{\pi E}## is an integer
B) ##\frac{v_2B}{\pi E}## is an integer
C) ##\frac{\sqrt{{v_1}^2+{v_2}^2}B}{\pi E}## is an integer
D) ##\frac{q}{m}\frac{\sqrt{{v_1}^2+{v_2}^2}B}{\pi E}## is an integer


Homework Equations



Lorentz force = ##q\vec{v}## x ##\vec{B} + q\vec{E}##

The Attempt at a Solution



The force on the charged particle will be ##\vec{F} = qBv_y\hat{i} - qE\hat{j}- qBv_x\hat{k}## .

There will be a force on the particle in negative z- direction which means particle will never return to origin . I am not sure how to move forward .

Please help me .

Thanks
 
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Answers and Replies

  • #2
There will be a force on the particle in negative z- direction
If so, it acquires a velocity component in that direction and your Lorentz force changes !
 
  • #3
If so, it acquires a velocity component in that direction and your Lorentz force changes !

Ok . So what should be my next step ?
 
  • #4
What kind of trajectories can you think of in a field like that ? Which would let the partcle go through the origin more than once ?
 
  • #5
Sorry , I have no idea .
 
  • #6

Homework Statement



A particle of specific charge q/m is projected from the origin of coordinates with initial velocity ##v_1\hat{i}+v_2\hat{j}## in space having uniform electric field and magnetic field as ##-E\hat{j}## and ##-B\hat{j}## respectively. The particle will definitely return to the origin once if




Homework Equations



Lorentz force = ##q\vec{v}## x ##\vec{B} + q\vec{E}##

The Attempt at a Solution



The force on the charged particle will be ##\vec{F} = qBv_y\hat{i} - qE\hat{j}- qBv_x\hat{k}## .
Check the vector product. Y component of velocity does not give component of force with y component of magnetic field.
There will be a force on the particle in negative z- direction which means particle will never return to origin .
Thanks
Without the electric field, the particle would move in the ( x,z) plane, perpendicular to the magnetic field, along a circle.
Recall that ##\vec F= m \frac {d \vec v }{dt}##. Write it in components.
 
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  • #7
Hello ehild ,

Thanks for replying.

Check the vector product. Y component of velocity does not give component of force with y component of magnetic field.

Sorry . That was a typo . ##\vec{F} = qBv_z\hat{i} - qE\hat{j}- qBv_x\hat{k}##

Without the electric field, the particle would move in the ( x,z) plane, perpendicular to the magnetic field, along a circle.

Why ? There is an initial component of velocity along Y-axis .

Recall that ##\vec F= m \vec {\dot v}##. Write it in components.

##m a_x = qBv_z##
##m a_y = -qE##
##m a_z = -qBv_x##
 
  • #8
Hello ehild ,

Why ? There is an initial component of velocity along Y-axis .
Ah, yes.


##m a_x = qBv_z##
##m a_y = -qE##
##m a_z = -qBv_x##
Write the acceleration components as time derivatives of the velocity components, and solve the system of differential equation.
 
  • #9
Write the acceleration components as time derivatives of the velocity components, and solve the system of differential equation.
You mean I should solve the following three equations .

$$m \frac{dv_x}{dt} = qBv_z$$
$$m \frac{dv_y}{dt} = -qE$$
$$m \frac{dv_z}{dt} = -qBv_x$$

They look bit difficult to solve ?
 
  • #10
You mean I should solve the following three equations .

$$m \frac{dv_x}{dt} = qBv_z$$
$$m \frac{dv_y}{dt} = -qE$$
$$m \frac{dv_z}{dt} = -qBv_x$$

They look bit difficult to solve ?

No. You can solve the y component at once. The x, z components correspond to circular motion. (Why?) Take the derivative of the first equation and substitute ## \frac{dv_z}{dt} ## into the third one.
 
  • #11
Ok . So what should I do once I get vx,vy,vz ? How do I impose the condition that particle passes the origin ? Should I need to find general coordinates of the particle ?
 
  • #12
Ok . So what should I do once I get vx,vy,vz ? How do I impose the condition that particle passes the origin ? Should I need to find general coordinates of the particle ?
Integrate the velocity components to get the coordinates with the initial condition x=y=z = 0. Find the condition that they are the same at a later time.
No need to use other coordinates.
 
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  • #13
Find the condition that they are the same at a later time.

What is same at a later time ?
 
  • #14
What is same at a later time ?
x and y and z all are zero again.
 
  • #15
Ok . I tried finding vx . ##v_x = ±v_1sin(ωt+φ)## where ω = qB/m and φ = nπ/2 ( n is odd) . Is this alright ?
 
  • #16
Ok . I tried finding vx . ##v_x = ±v_1sin(ωt+φ)## where ω = qB/m and φ = nπ/2 ( n is odd) . Is this alright ?
You can write it as vx=v1 cos (wt). And what is vz?
 
  • #17
You can write it as vx=v1 cos (wt).

Please explain .
 
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  • #18
You left your solution with an arbitrary odd n. Choose n =1, then vx=v1cos(wt) will fulfill the initial condition.
 
  • #19
Ok .

So, ##x=\frac{v_1}{ω}sinωt## ??
 
  • #20
Ok .

So, ##x=\frac{v_1}{ω}sinωt## ??
Yes. Go ahead.
 
  • #21
The general coordinates are ##x=\frac{v_1m}{qB}sinωt## , ##y = v_2t - \frac{qE}{2m}t^2## , ##z = \frac{v_1m}{qB}(1-cosωt)##
 
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  • #22
The general coordinates are ##x=\frac{v_1m}{qB}sinωt## , ##y = v_2t - \frac{qE}{2m}t^2## , ##z = \frac{v_1m}{qB}(1-cosωt)##
Are you sure in the minus sign in z? Check the acceleration.

Then find the time when x, y, z are zero and the condition that this can happen.
 
  • #23
Are you sure in the minus sign in x ?

You mean there should be a minus sign ??
 
  • #24
You mean there should be a minus sign ??
No, in z. I think the minus sign is at the wrong place. Check.
 
  • #25
Sorry . I think It should be ##x=\frac{v_1m}{qB}sinωt## only . I don't see why there should be a minus sign .
 
  • #26
Sorry . I think It should be ##x=\frac{v_1m}{qB}sinωt## only . I don't see why there should be a minus sign .
x is correct. I meant z, sorry.
 
  • #27
##z = - \frac{v_1m}{qB}(1-cosωt) ## ??
 
  • #28
##z = - \frac{v_1m}{qB}(1-cosωt) ## ??
Yes.
 
  • #29
Ok .

x will be 0 when ##\frac{qBt}{\pi m }## is an integer , y will be 0 at ##t = \frac{2mv_2}{qE}## , z will be 0 when ##\frac{qBt}{2\pi m }## is an integer
 
  • #30
Ok .

x will be 0 when ##\frac{qBt}{\pi m }## is an integer , y will be 0 at ##t = \frac{2mv_2}{qE}## , z will be 0 when ##\frac{qBt}{2\pi m }## is an integer
What integer is it? When is z = 0? And all of them should be zero at the same time.
 
  • #32
  • #33
Was it difficult?

It surely was until you took over :smile: . Honestly speaking , I had almost made up my mind to leave this problem as I was completely clueless :headbang:. But last couple of hours of problem solving were pretty exciting :partytime:,thanks to you .

You are amazing :bow:.
 
  • #34
It was the combination of a circular motion in the x,z plane and a vertical projectile motion in the direction of y. The period of the circular motion should be the same as the flight time of the vertical projectile.

upload_2016-5-10_11-18-29.png



Thank you for the thanks :smile:
 
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