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Acid92

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Now say two charged particles (charge type irrelevant in question) x and y are d metres from each other then y exerts a force f on x. But since x is also exerting f on y then wont it experience another force f as a result of Newtons 3rd law? So the total force x experiences will be equal to 2f but Im seeing calculations in my textbook which uses only f when calculating accelerations for x so this is wrong.

My guess is that the force y is exerting on x itself is the third law as a result of x exerting f on y but then that implies that only x is exerting an electric force but how can that be when both particles are charged, shouldnt they both exert non 3rd law forces on each other independently(and feel 3rd law forces as a result consequently in addition to that)?