Complex Analysis - Proving a bijection on a closed disk

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving that a specific function, defined on the complex plane excluding a certain point, is a bijection on the closed disk for a given condition regarding the parameter w. The context is within the subject area of complex analysis, particularly focusing on mappings and properties of functions in the complex plane.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss how to compute the inverse of the function and the implications of the hint regarding the mapping of the unit circle. There is confusion about the meaning of "into itself" and how to demonstrate that the function and its inverse maintain the property of mapping the circle to itself.

Discussion Status

Some participants are attempting to clarify the steps needed to show the required properties of the function and its inverse. There is a focus on understanding the relationship between the modulus of the function and the unit circle, with guidance being offered on how to approach the proof.

Contextual Notes

Participants express uncertainty regarding the initial steps of the proof, particularly in relation to the hint provided and the implications of the conditions set by the problem.

semithinking
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Homework Statement



For each w \in \mathbb{C} define the function \phi_w on the open set \mathbb{C}\backslash \{\bar{w}^{-1}\} by \phi_w (z) = \frac{w - z}{1 - \bar{w}z}, for z \in \mathbb{C}\backslash \{\bar{w}^{-1}\} \back.

Prove that \phi_w : \bar{D} \mapsto \bar{D} is a bijection on the closed disk \bar{D} for w \notin \bar{D}.

Hint: Compute the inverse of \phi_w and prove first that both \phi_w and (\phi_w)^{-1} map the circle \mathbb{T} into itself.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



So following from the hint, I can calculate the inverse of \phi_w. But I before I can start, I'm getting lost even at how I would show mapping the function and it's inverse to a circle...(I'm even more confused by "into itself".)
 
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You want to show that if |z|=1 then |phi_w(z)|=1. Use that |z|=1 is equivalent to zz*=1.
 
So I would substitute zz* into |phi_w(z)| to see if it's 1?
 
semithinking said:
So I would substitute zz* into |phi_w(z)| to see if it's 1?

No. You want to show (phi_w(z))(phi_w(z))*=1 for any z such that zz*=1.
 

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