Conductor band overlap definition question

td21
Gold Member
Messages
177
Reaction score
8
i search all over the web but i cannot find the definition. Although I find all the literature saying that metal have valence band and conduction band overlapped, (and I cannot find a metal example with valence band and conduction band not being overlapped), I wonder if there is a conductor(including metal) example with valence band and conduction band being separated with an infinitesimal width such that valence electron can jump easily thermally.
I know this is semiconductor properties but with gap being very small then does this make the situation being conducting at temperature bigger than but not equal to 0K?
I appreciate the helps provided by physicsforums and thank you so much.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I've seen the phrase "overlapping conduction and valence band", but I think it's a historical appendage that's not useful anymore. See if you can find the full k-dependent electronic structure of various semiconductors and metals and compare them. The solution to your question should become apparent.

The only very small gap I know of is doped graphene.
 
The definition of a metal as a solid with "overlapping conduction and valence band" is still useful (and used).

There is a gradual progression from conduction to insulation and small bandgap materials will seem like conductors (perhaps poor conductors) and common temperatures. One example is PbS, or Galena, which was the first semiconductor used commercially (before it was known it was a semiconductor, or even what a semiconductor was!). It can be used as a conductor in many situations.

Whether a material is a conductor or insulator or semiconductor can depend on your point of view. Most people think of diamond as an insulator but it can be used as a semiconductor if it is biased appropriately.
 
From the BCS theory of superconductivity is well known that the superfluid density smoothly decreases with increasing temperature. Annihilated superfluid carriers become normal and lose their momenta on lattice atoms. So if we induce a persistent supercurrent in a ring below Tc and after that slowly increase the temperature, we must observe a decrease in the actual supercurrent, because the density of electron pairs and total supercurrent momentum decrease. However, this supercurrent...
Hi. I have got question as in title. How can idea of instantaneous dipole moment for atoms like, for example hydrogen be consistent with idea of orbitals? At my level of knowledge London dispersion forces are derived taking into account Bohr model of atom. But we know today that this model is not correct. If it would be correct I understand that at each time electron is at some point at radius at some angle and there is dipole moment at this time from nucleus to electron at orbit. But how...

Similar threads

Back
Top