Confused about set-theoretic definition of a function

poochie_d
Messages
17
Reaction score
0
I have read that a function f: A -> B can be defined as an ordered triple of sets (A,B,X), where X is the set of all ordered pairs X = \{(a,f(a)) \in A \times B\}. But ordered tuples are really functions from \{1, ..., n\} to (whatever set under consideration), right? So isn't this a circular definition? Or is there a more basic definition of functions that does not involve tuples? Any help would be greatly appreciated.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
poochie_d said:
But ordered tuples are really functions from \{1, ..., n\} to (whatever set under consideration), right?

No, this is not true. The ordered tuple (a,b) is defined as {{a},{a,b}}. It's not defined as a function.
 
But aren't tuples other than the ordered pair defined as functions, so that the definition of functions as triples would still be circular?
 
poochie_d said:
But aren't tuples other than the ordered pair defined as functions, so that the definition of functions as triples would still be circular?

No, triples can be defined as

(a,b,c)=((a,b),c)

And the definition of a function only uses ordered pairs and triples. So there is nothing circular.
 
Oh I think I get it now. Thanks micromass!
 
Hi all, I've been a roulette player for more than 10 years (although I took time off here and there) and it's only now that I'm trying to understand the physics of the game. Basically my strategy in roulette is to divide the wheel roughly into two halves (let's call them A and B). My theory is that in roulette there will invariably be variance. In other words, if A comes up 5 times in a row, B will be due to come up soon. However I have been proven wrong many times, and I have seen some...
Thread 'Detail of Diagonalization Lemma'
The following is more or less taken from page 6 of C. Smorynski's "Self-Reference and Modal Logic". (Springer, 1985) (I couldn't get raised brackets to indicate codification (Gödel numbering), so I use a box. The overline is assigning a name. The detail I would like clarification on is in the second step in the last line, where we have an m-overlined, and we substitute the expression for m. Are we saying that the name of a coded term is the same as the coded term? Thanks in advance.
Back
Top