Confusion about the nature of magnetic forces.

AI Thread Summary
Magnetic dipoles experience torque in a uniform magnetic field, but no net force, leading to confusion about how bar magnets attract to surfaces like refrigerator doors. The attraction occurs because the magnet induces a magnetic field in the metal surface, creating a non-uniform magnetic field that results in a net force. The discussion references the Stern-Gerlach experiment, which demonstrated that a gradient in the magnetic field can exert a quantized force on neutral atoms. The potential energy of a dipole in a magnetic field is influenced by the spatial variation of the magnetic field, which is crucial for understanding the forces at play. Overall, the interaction between magnets and ferromagnetic materials involves both induced magnetization and field gradients.
siddharth5129
Messages
94
Reaction score
3
Seeing as there is no net force on a magnetic dipole placed in a magnetic field ( only torque ) , and that magnetism in say a bar magnet is caused by nothing more than tiny atomic current loops ( magnetic dipoles) oriented in the same direction , i don't understand how a bar magnet would get attracted to say a refrigerator door, as this would require a net force as opposed to a net torque (Am i right in assuming that the bar magnet or refrigerator magnet magnetizes a certain area of the refrigerator door , and this area then sets up a magnetic field which influences the refrigerator magnet)
 
Physics news on Phys.org
There is no net force on a magnetic dipole placed in a uniform magnetic field.
 
The Stern Gerlach experiment with a beam of neutral silver atoms in a magnetic field (~1923) with a gradient won the Nobel Prize in physics, because there was a force on the atoms..

[Edit] They won the Nobel Prize because there was a quantized force on the neutral atoms.
Bob S
 
Last edited:
The dipole potential energy U(r) in a magnetic field is -µB. If there is a space-dependence of B, i.e., B(r), then the -grad(U) is the force that makes work.
 
Last edited:
No, magnetic field was only uniform along on plane. It was in fact placed in a way that magnetic field was in fact non uniform in certain direction. Otherwise gradient of field will be zero.
 
Thread 'Motional EMF in Faraday disc, co-rotating magnet axial mean flux'
So here is the motional EMF formula. Now I understand the standard Faraday paradox that an axis symmetric field source (like a speaker motor ring magnet) has a magnetic field that is frame invariant under rotation around axis of symmetry. The field is static whether you rotate the magnet or not. So far so good. What puzzles me is this , there is a term average magnetic flux or "azimuthal mean" , this term describes the average magnetic field through the area swept by the rotating Faraday...
It may be shown from the equations of electromagnetism, by James Clerk Maxwell in the 1860’s, that the speed of light in the vacuum of free space is related to electric permittivity (ϵ) and magnetic permeability (μ) by the equation: c=1/√( μ ϵ ) . This value is a constant for the vacuum of free space and is independent of the motion of the observer. It was this fact, in part, that led Albert Einstein to Special Relativity.

Similar threads

Replies
1
Views
621
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
7
Views
3K
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
42
Views
2K
Back
Top