Conservation of Momentum in Classical Field Theory

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In classical field theory, translational symmetry leads to the energy-momentum tensor's derivation via Noether's theorem, resulting in four conserved charges, including energy conservation represented by the Hamiltonian. The three remaining charges correspond to momentum components, affirming the conservation of momentum. The proof of momentum conservation relies on the translation invariance of the Lagrangian, which shows that the time derivative of the momentum is zero. This is demonstrated through algebraic manipulation of the Lagrangian and application of the divergence theorem. Ultimately, the conserved quantity derived from spatial translations is defined as momentum, reinforcing its fundamental role in physics.
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In classical field theory, translational (in space and time) symmetry leads the derivation of the energy-momentum tensor using Noether's theorem.

From this it is possible to derive four conserved charges. The first turns out to be the Hamiltonian, and thus we have energy conservation.

The remaining three turn out to be
Pi=-∫d3aiφa
where φa are fields and πa are their conjugate momentum densities. It is often stated that these are the three (physical) momentum components, and so we have conservation of momentum. Is there an easy way to see that this is true?
 
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fayled said:
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Is there an easy way to see that this is true?
If you are asking to prove that \frac{d}{dt}P^{i} = 0 , then the answer to your question is an easy yes. Translation invariance means that the Lagrangian, \mathcal{L}(\varphi_{a},\dot{\varphi}_{a},\partial_{k}\varphi_{a}) , has no explicit x^{k}-dependence, i.e., \partial^{i}\mathcal{L} = 0 . This implies that \int d^{3}x \ \partial^{i}\mathcal{L} = 0 .

The rest is just algebra: Calculate \partial^{i}\mathcal{L} and use the equation of motion to obtain

0 = \int d^{3}x \ \partial^{i}\mathcal{L} = \frac{d}{dt} \int d^{3}x \ \frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial \dot{\varphi_{a}}} \ \partial^{i}\varphi_{a} + \int d^{3}x \ \partial_{k}\left( \frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial \partial_{k} \varphi_{a}} \ \partial^{i}\varphi_{a}\right) . The second term vanishes by the divergence theorem, and the first term is just \frac{d}{dt}P^{i}.
 
samalkhaiat said:
If you are asking to prove that \frac{d}{dt}P^{i} = 0 , then the answer to your question is an easy yes. Translation invariance means that the Lagrangian, \mathcal{L}(\varphi_{a},\dot{\varphi}_{a},\partial_{k}\varphi_{a}) , has no explicit x^{k}-dependence, i.e., \partial^{i}\mathcal{L} = 0 . This implies that \int d^{3}x \ \partial^{i}\mathcal{L} = 0 .

The rest is just algebra: Calculate \partial^{i}\mathcal{L} and use the equation of motion to obtain

0 = \int d^{3}x \ \partial^{i}\mathcal{L} = \frac{d}{dt} \int d^{3}x \ \frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial \dot{\varphi_{a}}} \ \partial^{i}\varphi_{a} + \int d^{3}x \ \partial_{k}\left( \frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial \partial_{k} \varphi_{a}} \ \partial^{i}\varphi_{a}\right) . The second term vanishes by the divergence theorem, and the first term is just \frac{d}{dt}P^{i}.

I'm happy that this quantity is conserved - It just isn't very clear that it is in fact the momentum.
 
Then you should consider some concrete Lagrangians (for example the Lagrangian of electromagnetic, long elastic rod, sound wave, etc.). Or you can use the argument of relativistic covariance.
 
Well, it's momentum by definition, because the conserved quantity that's conserved because of spatial translations is called momentum (as for temporal translations it's called energy).
 
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