Convergence of improper integrals

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the convergence of improper integrals, specifically comparing the integral of the function \(\frac{x}{1+x^2}\) over the entire real line to the limit of the integral over a symmetric interval as the bounds approach infinity. Participants explore why one expression diverges while the other converges to zero.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants note that the improper integral \(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{x}{1+x^2}dx\) diverges because both the positive and negative parts must be finite for it to be defined.
  • Others explain that the limit \(\lim_{R\rightarrow \infty}\int_{-R}^{R} \frac{x}{1+x^2}dx\) represents the Cauchy Principal Value, which can yield a finite result (zero) for odd functions despite the divergence of the improper integral.
  • A participant questions whether the difference arises from the magnitudes of the infinities in the first expression being undefined, while in the second expression, the areas on either side of the y-axis must cancel out due to symmetry.
  • Another participant adds that not all cases require infinities, using oscillating functions like \(\sin(x)\) or \(\cos(x)\) as examples where the improper integral is not well-defined despite being bounded.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the nature of convergence and divergence in these integrals, indicating that multiple competing perspectives remain without a consensus on the underlying reasons for the differences.

Contextual Notes

Some limitations include the dependence on definitions of convergence and divergence, as well as the specific behavior of functions involved in the integrals, which may not be fully resolved in the discussion.

lwebb
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What is the difference between

\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{x}{1+x^2}dx

and

\lim_{R\rightarrow \infty}\int_{-R}^{R} \frac{x}{1+x^2}dx ?

And why does the first expression diverge, whilst the second converges and is equal to zero?
 
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lwebb said:
What is the difference between

\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{x}{1+x^2}dx

and

\lim_{R\rightarrow \infty}\int_{-R}^{R} \frac{x}{1+x^2}dx ?

And why does the first expression diverge, whilst the second converges and is equal to zero?

Welcome to Physics Forums!

The first is an improper integral and is defined as:

\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{x}{1+x^2}dx = \int_{-\infty}^{0} \frac{x}{1+x^2}dx + \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{x}{1+x^2}dx

In other words, for the improper integral to be finite both positive and negative parts must be finite.

The second is called the "Cauchy Principal Value". You can google for this. Odd functions like yours or like ##sin(x)## will have CPV = 0, even though the improper integral is not finite.
 
I apologise in advance if this is a stupid question, but could one say that the two expressions are different because the infinities in the first expression may or may not be of the same magnitude, and so the area under curve is therefore undefined. Whereas the infinities in the second expression must be of the same magnitude, and so the areas either side of the y-axis must therefore be equal, leading them to cancel out as in an odd function?
 
lwebb said:
I apologise in advance if this is a stupid question, but could one say that the two expressions are different because the infinities in the first expression may or may not be of the same magnitude, and so the area under curve is therefore undefined. Whereas the infinities in the second expression must be of the same magnitude, and so the areas either side of the y-axis must therefore be equal, leading them to cancel out as in an odd function?

They don't need to be infinities. Take the example of ##sin(x)## or ##cos(x)##: the improper integral is not well defined because the integrals are oscillating functions and never settle down to a finite value, although the integrals themselves are bounded.
 

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