Convergence of Sequence xn=nabn and Lim of P(n)/(a^n) = 0

  • Thread starter Thread starter RKermanshahi
  • Start date Start date
RKermanshahi
Messages
3
Reaction score
0
1. Consider the sequence xn=nabn, where a is a natural number and b is a real number with 0<b<1. Show that the sequence converges to zero. Conclude from here that lim P(n)/cn=0, where P is a polynomial function and c>1.



2. I am not sure how to show that the sequence converges to zero.


3. We know that bn certainly converges to zero since 0<b<1. I have tried to show that since that part of the sequence converges to zero, the entire sequence converges to zero; however, I believe I need that at least the rest of the sequence is bounded, which it is not. I have also tried using the standard epsilon-definition of the convergence of a sequence, but that has proved to be messy, with ln's and e's. My guess is it's something simple that I'm not seeing...
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I would try to work with log(x_n)=log(n^a*b^n). Can you show the log goes to negative infinity as n->infinity? You can do this if you can show log(x_n)/n goes to log(b) as n->infinity.
 
Last edited:
So taking the log's of both sides and applying rules of log's we get:

log(x_n)/n= (alogn)/n + logb. Is there a way to show (a logn)/n goes to zero as n goes to infinity without using L'Hospital's rule?
 
RKermanshahi said:
So taking the log's of both sides and applying rules of log's we get:

log(x_n)/n= (alogn)/n + logb. Is there a way to show (a logn)/n goes to zero as n goes to infinity without using L'Hospital's rule?

Nothing very neat, I guess. You could show the limit of log(n)/n is the same as the limit of log(e^n)/e^n, since e^n also goes to infinity. So that gives you n/e^n. If b_n=n/e^n then the limit of (b_n+1)/(b_n) is 1/e which is less than 1. So you can show it goes to zero by comparison with (1/e)^n.
 
Thanks, Dick. I actually solved it using the monotone convergence theorem. I took the quotient xn/xn+1 and showed that it was eventually always less than one (and hence eventually decreasing). I then showed it was bounded. So by the monotone convergence theorem it converges. Finally, taking the limit of the recurrence relation, we get that the limit equals 0!
 
Prove $$\int\limits_0^{\sqrt2/4}\frac{1}{\sqrt{x-x^2}}\arcsin\sqrt{\frac{(x-1)\left(x-1+x\sqrt{9-16x}\right)}{1-2x}} \, \mathrm dx = \frac{\pi^2}{8}.$$ Let $$I = \int\limits_0^{\sqrt 2 / 4}\frac{1}{\sqrt{x-x^2}}\arcsin\sqrt{\frac{(x-1)\left(x-1+x\sqrt{9-16x}\right)}{1-2x}} \, \mathrm dx. \tag{1}$$ The representation integral of ##\arcsin## is $$\arcsin u = \int\limits_{0}^{1} \frac{\mathrm dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}}, \qquad 0 \leqslant u \leqslant 1.$$ Plugging identity above into ##(1)## with ##u...
Back
Top