I'm far from a math wiz, but here's how I see it:tan(x) will always be between -1 and 1,
but tan (1/n) will always be positive so it will be between 0 and 1
(well, actually for this problem, the max value of the numerator is tan(1) and it continues to decrease)
and the denominator will be at the very least 2 and it will continue to increase
so your fraction will continue to get smaller and smaller
in fact, it will always be smaller than 1/n
since the top will be at most 1 and the the denominator will be greater than n
so, tan(1/n)/(n+1) < 1/nand you know that 1/n converges...so by comparison, tan(1/n)/(1+n) must also converge