BrownianMan
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Prove that \sum_{i=1}^{\infty }x_{i} = \sum_{i=1}^{\infty }(x_{2i} + x_{2i+1}) if \sum_{i=1}^{\infty }x_{i} converges and if for any \varepsilon > 0 there is some m such that |x_{k}| < \varepsilon for all k\geq m.
I'm a little confused by this because for 1/(4^i) for i from 1 to infinity, this doesn't hold. The sum of 1/(4^2i) for i from 1 to infinity is 1/15 and the sum of 1/(4^(2i+1)) for i from 1 to infinity is 1/60. Together they have a sum of 1/12. But the sum of 1/(4^i) for i from 1 to infinity is 1/3. Doesn't this only hold when the index starts at i=0?
I'm a little confused by this because for 1/(4^i) for i from 1 to infinity, this doesn't hold. The sum of 1/(4^2i) for i from 1 to infinity is 1/15 and the sum of 1/(4^(2i+1)) for i from 1 to infinity is 1/60. Together they have a sum of 1/12. But the sum of 1/(4^i) for i from 1 to infinity is 1/3. Doesn't this only hold when the index starts at i=0?