Cooper Pairs: Non-Ideal Gas Behavior & BEC Comparisons

  • Thread starter Thread starter petr1243
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Bec Behavior Gas
petr1243
Messages
12
Reaction score
0
Repulsive interactions are an attribute of Cooper Pairs, which mean that Cooper Pairs don't behave like an ideal gas . Are these the only attributes that prevent Cooper pairs to behave like an "ideal" boson? How could we show that the two superconductors of a JJ behave just like two BEC's?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I am not sure I understand the questions. AFAIK you do not need a condensate in order to form a JJ (I presume you mean a Josephson junction). You do not even need a microsopic model for what is going on in the two banks in ordet to derive the Josephson equations (which is fortunate since this means that we can model high-Tc junctions).
There is a very nice (and simple) derivation of the equations in the Feynman lectures. I like it because it shows that the Josephson effect is very "general" (at least once the equations have been generalized to non-sinusoidal CPRs, Feynman's approach can be easily modified to cover this).
Hence, it is not surprising that it can be created using so many different systems including two BEC.

Alexander Golubov wrote a very nice review of the Josephson effects a few years ago (which includes unconventional current-phase relations); you should be able to find it using Google schoolar (I don't remember the title but I do have it on my computer at work).
 
i appreciate the above reply
 
I'm not interested in the derivations of the well know ac and dc josephson equations. However, I am interested in trying to relate the two islands of a josephson junction with two BE condensates of Cooper pairs when the charging energy is sufficiently much larger than the Josephson coupling energy. I'm just having a difficult time in understanding this analogy. I understand that quasiparticle tunneling is minimal, when we have strong repulsive interactions between the two electrons. Any help would be well appreciated.
 
Last edited:
Hi. I have got question as in title. How can idea of instantaneous dipole moment for atoms like, for example hydrogen be consistent with idea of orbitals? At my level of knowledge London dispersion forces are derived taking into account Bohr model of atom. But we know today that this model is not correct. If it would be correct I understand that at each time electron is at some point at radius at some angle and there is dipole moment at this time from nucleus to electron at orbit. But how...
Back
Top