bhobba
Mentor
- 10,965
- 3,836
Zmunkz said:In principle... probably, yes. Every interpretation of a model has implications along with it, and it is just a matter of time before someone clever enough comes along and sees a way to measure the reality of one set of implications verse another.
That's not true.
Many interpretations have been deliberately cooked up so its impossible to tell the difference between it and the formalism.
In fact most (but not all) interpretations is simply an argument about the meaning of probability.
http://math.ucr.edu/home/baez/bayes.html
Thanks
Bill