molkee
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In Kohn-Sham DFT, the Coulomb potential, which is a component of the Kohn-Sham potential, is given by:
v_H(\mathbf{r}) = \int \frac{\rho(\mathbf{r'})}{|\mathbf{r}-\mathbf{r'}|}d\mathbf{r'}
where \rho(\mathbf{r'}) is the electron density.
For molecular systems with exponential densities, this potential is known to be finite at any \textbf{r}.
How to prove it analytically just based on its definition?
Would a potential
v(\mathbf{r}) = \int \frac{\rho(\mathbf{r'})}{|\mathbf{r}-\mathbf{r'}|^n}d\mathbf{r'}
(where n is some nonnegative integer)
be also finite at any \mathbf{r}?
v_H(\mathbf{r}) = \int \frac{\rho(\mathbf{r'})}{|\mathbf{r}-\mathbf{r'}|}d\mathbf{r'}
where \rho(\mathbf{r'}) is the electron density.
For molecular systems with exponential densities, this potential is known to be finite at any \textbf{r}.
How to prove it analytically just based on its definition?
Would a potential
v(\mathbf{r}) = \int \frac{\rho(\mathbf{r'})}{|\mathbf{r}-\mathbf{r'}|^n}d\mathbf{r'}
(where n is some nonnegative integer)
be also finite at any \mathbf{r}?