D/dx in Spherical Coordinates: What am I Missing?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the relationship between the partial derivatives of spherical and rectangular coordinates, specifically questioning if ∂r/∂x equals (∂x/∂r)⁻¹. It is clarified that this equality does not hold because the partial derivatives depend on the other coordinates being held constant. The participants highlight that ∂r/∂x keeps y constant, while ∂x/∂r keeps θ constant, leading to different results. Additionally, there is a distinction made between dr/dx and ∂r/∂x, emphasizing that they are not equivalent. The conversation concludes with an acknowledgment of the complexity in the relationships between these derivatives.
raul_l
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Homework Statement



Hi. I have a simple question. Is it true that \frac{\partial r}{\partial x} = (\frac{\partial x}{\partial r})^{-1} ?

Because I'm having some trouble with the conversion between rectangular and spherical coordinates.

Homework Equations



x = r cos \phi sin \theta

y = r sin \phi sin \theta

z = r cos \theta

r = \sqrt{x^2+y^2+z^2}

The Attempt at a Solution



It is easy to show that
\frac{\partial r}{\partial x} = cos \phi sin \theta

However, we see that
(\frac{\partial x}{\partial r})^{-1} = (\frac{\partial (r cos \phi sin \theta)}{\partial r})^{-1}= \frac{1}{cos \phi sin \theta}

and these are clearly not equal.

What am I missing? :confused:
 
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Hi raul_l! :smile:

(have a curly d: ∂ :wink:)
raul_l said:
Hi. I have a simple question. Is it true that \frac{\partial r}{\partial x} = (\frac{\partial x}{\partial r})^{-1} ?

No, it doesn't work for partial derivatives, because they depend on what the other (unwritten) coordinates are.

∂r/dx keeps y constant, but ∂x/dr keeps θ constant …

and keeping y and θ constant aren't the same! :wink:
 
Yes, I suspected that. Thanks.

But it's weird that if I multiply both sides by \frac{\partial x}{\partial r} I get
\frac{\partial r}{\partial x} \frac{\partial x}{\partial r} = 1
and that seems mathematically correct.
 
You made a little mistake.:wink:

\frac{dx}{dr}=cos \phi sin \theta

Proof.

<br /> r = \frac{x}{cos \phi sin \theta} <br />

dr=\frac{(x)&#039;cos \phi sin \theta - x(cos \phi sin \theta)&#039;}{cos^2 \phi sin^2 \theta} dx

dr=\frac{cos \phi sin \theta}{cos^2 \phi sin^2 \theta}dx

dr=\frac{1}{cos \phi sin \theta}dx

\frac{dr}{dx}=\frac{1}{cos \phi sin \theta}

Is this right, mate :smile: ?
 
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njama said:
Is this right, mate :smile: ?

Sorry, chuck :redface:

not unless you're using those weird (x,θ,φ) coordinates. :rolleyes:
 
Just you need to prove that

\frac{dr}{dx} = (\frac{dx}{dr})^{-1}

(\frac{dx}{dr})^{-1}=(cos \phi sin \theta)^{-1}=\frac{1}{cos \phi sin \theta}=\frac{dr}{dx}

I can do science me. :smile:
 
njama, there's a difference between \frac{dr}{dx} and \frac{\partial r}{\partial x}.

Correct me if I'm wrong but I think the left side of what you wrote is equal to
\frac{dr}{dx} = \frac{\partial r}{\partial x} + \frac{\partial r}{\partial y} \frac{d y}{d x} + \frac{\partial r}{\partial z} \frac{d z}{d x}

while right side is equal to
(\frac{dx}{dr})^{-1} = (\frac{\partial x}{\partial r} + \frac{\partial x}{\partial \phi} \frac{d \phi}{d r} + \frac{\partial x}{\partial \theta} \frac{d \theta}{d r})^{-1}

and it doesn't look like these would be equal.
 
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