Definite Integration with Upper bound as another integral

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The discussion revolves around solving the derivative of a definite integral, specifically f'(π/2) where f(x) involves an integral with an upper limit defined by another integral g(x). The user initially calculates g(π/2) as 0, leading to an incorrect conclusion for f'(π/2). The correct approach requires applying the Leibniz integral rule, which states that when differentiating an integral with variable limits, one must multiply by the derivative of the upper limit. This adjustment clarifies the calculation, ultimately leading to the correct answer of -1. Understanding the application of the Leibniz rule is crucial for solving such problems in calculus.
marathon
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i have a similar one.

f(x) = \int\frac{dt}{\sqrt{1+t^3}} on (0, g(x))

g(x) = \int(1+sin(t^2))dt on (0, cos(x))

that is, these are definite integrals on the interval from zero up to the given function.

the question is to solve f'(pi/2). the correct answer is -1 but i don't understand how to get it. I'm aware that integrating sin(t^2) leads to a fresnel, but I'm pretty sure that's not what we're supposed to be doing here since it's a challenge problem from a calc 2 text on the chapter with FTC. what i got was that g(pi/2) should be 0 since cos(pi/2)=0 and any integral on (a,a)=0. then we'd have f'(pi/2) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1+g(\frac{\pi}{2})^3}}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{1+0^3}} = 1, but obviously this is incorrect. halp?
 
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