# Definite trigonometric integral

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## Homework Statement

solve ##\int_0^1 x^6 \arcsin{x} dx##

Last edited:

Gold Member

## Homework Statement

solve ##\int_0^1 x^6 \arcsin{x} dx##

3. The Attempt at a Solution

I tried substituting arcsinx=y, but abandoned it a few steps later ahead as it started taking a more complicated form. I have a feeling definite integral properties play a larger role here and tried applying some but didn't get anywhere. I'd appreciate some help, thanks
PS- I solved it using Integration by parts. Looking for a shorter method if exists

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Try integrating by parts several times. That is a little tedious but will get you the final answer.
Edit: wrote the above before your PS came up. I think by parts will be the shortest way.

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Try integrating by parts several times. That is a little tedious but will get you the final answer.
I solved it by a single integration by parts...I'm looking for an even shorter method

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did you get (35π -32)/490 ?

Ray Vickson
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I solved it by a single integration by parts...I'm looking for an even shorter method

Show your work. Maybe what you did is the shortest possible way, but we cannot tell if you don't show us.

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did you get (35π -32)/490 ?
Yes I did. (I took sin inverse as first function and x^6 as second, after 2 or 3 substitutions I got this answer)

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Show your work. Maybe what you did is the shortest possible way, but we cannot tell if you don't show us.
I simply took arcsinx as first function, and x^6 as second function. It was just a simple by-parts and the second term (derivative of arcsin*integral of x^6) was an algebraic term- I just used 2 substitutions to evaluate that and get the second term as well. What I mean by a shorter method is whether I can avoid the entire by-parts procedure and just use definite-integral properties to calculate this (i.e by a different approach)