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definition of "indistinct" in pauli exclusion principle
I'm a little confused about what constitutes a distinct particle.
For example, a muon is not an electron as they've got different masses. So the wavefunction for the electron/muon system does not have to be antisymmetric (although it can be).
However, is a u-quark distinct from a d-quark?
The idea is that there might be just one type of quark, but it can have different quantum numbers.
An electron has different quantum numbers like spin up and spin down, and if you have two electrons, you have to antisymmetrize them:
|\uparrow \downarrow>-|\downarrow \uparrow>If the u,d states of the quark are just different states like spin up and spin down, then you have to antisymmetrize a state of two quarks:
|ud>-|du>
But if u and d are taken as distinct particles (as opposed to distinct states of a single particle), then it is okay to have just |ud>.
The reason I ask is because in various books I've often seen it argued that u and d are different states of SU(3), rather than different particles. Moreover, the Pauli exclusion principle applies to these different states when you have more than one particle, so that you have to choose something like:
|ud>-|du>
rather than |ud>.
The justification for this is (at least I think) that they say that SU(3) is a good symmetry, and the u d and s quarks to a good approximation have the same mass, so that they are all the same particle and u d and s just means different states like spin up and spin down.
So is there an approximate Pauli exclusion principle, that says if 2 particles are almost the same such as the u and d quarks, then their wavefunction must be antisymmetric under exchange of particles to a good approximation? Are they intrinsically the same, but something else (electromagnetic field, Higgs) makes them different? Is that why there is an approximate Pauli exclusion principle that applies to them, even though they're distinct?
Note that this could apply to not just quarks. Is a neutrino different from an electron? Are they different states of SU(2)? What if you turn off Higgs and electromagnetism? Even if you don't turn them off, if you have a neutrino and an electron, are their wavefunctions approximately antisymmetric? Because the argument for quarks seems to be that they should be antisymmetric, even though quarks are distinct - they're close enough that they say that the hadron wavefunctions are antisymmetric.
I'm a little confused about what constitutes a distinct particle.
For example, a muon is not an electron as they've got different masses. So the wavefunction for the electron/muon system does not have to be antisymmetric (although it can be).
However, is a u-quark distinct from a d-quark?
The idea is that there might be just one type of quark, but it can have different quantum numbers.
An electron has different quantum numbers like spin up and spin down, and if you have two electrons, you have to antisymmetrize them:
|\uparrow \downarrow>-|\downarrow \uparrow>If the u,d states of the quark are just different states like spin up and spin down, then you have to antisymmetrize a state of two quarks:
|ud>-|du>
But if u and d are taken as distinct particles (as opposed to distinct states of a single particle), then it is okay to have just |ud>.
The reason I ask is because in various books I've often seen it argued that u and d are different states of SU(3), rather than different particles. Moreover, the Pauli exclusion principle applies to these different states when you have more than one particle, so that you have to choose something like:
|ud>-|du>
rather than |ud>.
The justification for this is (at least I think) that they say that SU(3) is a good symmetry, and the u d and s quarks to a good approximation have the same mass, so that they are all the same particle and u d and s just means different states like spin up and spin down.
So is there an approximate Pauli exclusion principle, that says if 2 particles are almost the same such as the u and d quarks, then their wavefunction must be antisymmetric under exchange of particles to a good approximation? Are they intrinsically the same, but something else (electromagnetic field, Higgs) makes them different? Is that why there is an approximate Pauli exclusion principle that applies to them, even though they're distinct?
Note that this could apply to not just quarks. Is a neutrino different from an electron? Are they different states of SU(2)? What if you turn off Higgs and electromagnetism? Even if you don't turn them off, if you have a neutrino and an electron, are their wavefunctions approximately antisymmetric? Because the argument for quarks seems to be that they should be antisymmetric, even though quarks are distinct - they're close enough that they say that the hadron wavefunctions are antisymmetric.