Derivation of Faraday's Law from Lorentz's

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SUMMARY

This discussion focuses on the derivation of Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction from the Lorentz Force Law. The user explores two methods: the first method simplifies the vectors and results in an expression for electromotive force (EMF) as \(\varepsilon = \frac{Bv^3}{3}\), while the second method retains the vector components and leads to the expression \(\varepsilon = \frac{BA}{dt}\). The second approach is closer to Faraday's Law, indicating a valid derivation, although the user questions the absence of a negative sign related to the cross product.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Lorentz Force Law, specifically \(\vec{F}=q\vec{v}\times\vec{B}\)
  • Familiarity with vector calculus and cross products
  • Knowledge of electromagnetic induction principles
  • Basic calculus, including integration and substitution techniques
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of Faraday's Law from Maxwell's equations
  • Explore the implications of the negative sign in electromagnetic induction
  • Learn about the physical significance of the area vector in electromagnetic contexts
  • Investigate applications of Faraday's Law in electrical engineering
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Students of physics, electrical engineers, and anyone interested in the foundational principles of electromagnetism and their applications in technology.

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$$\vec{F}=q\vec{v}\times\vec{B}$$

$$\frac{d\vec{F}}{dq}=\vec{v}\times\vec{B}$$

$$\int\frac{d\vec{F}}{dq} \cdot ds=\int(\frac{d\vec{s}}{dt}\times\vec{B}) \cdot ds$$

from here, I went about it two different ways:

1.) Here I assumed everything was at right angles and got rid of all the vectors and vector products

$$\varepsilon=\int \frac{ds}{dt}B ds=\int \frac{ds}{dt}B \frac{ds}{dt}dt$$By u substitution

$$u=\frac{ds}{dt}, du=dt$$
$$\varepsilon=\int B(u^2)du=\frac{Bv^3}{3}$$

where v = ds/dtThat was the first way i went about it, but i didn't feel any closer to Faraday's law.

2.) Here I left the vectors alone on the RHS; I figured since \hat{v} and d\hat{s} were perpendicular, the quantity (\vec{v}s) would be a time derivative of the area formed

$$\varepsilon=\int\frac{ds}{dt}B ds=\int(\vec{v}\times\vec{B}) \cdot d\vec{s}=\dot{A}B$$

$$\varepsilon=\frac{BA}{dt}$$

don't know where the minus sign is; probably was supposed to do something with the cross product, but didn't know what.Well I got a lot further with the second "method," but is this a valid derivation? and what went wrong with the first method?
 
Last edited:
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Oh! PS, well, more like pre-script... my goal is to derive faraday's induction law from lorentz force law
 

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