Derivation of Faraday's Law from Lorentz's

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on deriving Faraday's Law from the Lorentz force law, starting with the equation for force on a charged particle in a magnetic field. Two methods are explored: the first method simplifies the vectors but does not yield a clear connection to Faraday's Law, while the second method retains the vector components and successfully relates the electromotive force (emf) to the rate of change of magnetic flux. The second approach leads to the expression ε = (BA)/dt, indicating progress toward Faraday's induction law. The participant questions the absence of a negative sign in their final result, suggesting a potential oversight related to the cross product. The discussion emphasizes the importance of vector treatment in deriving electromagnetic principles.
iScience
Messages
466
Reaction score
5
$$\vec{F}=q\vec{v}\times\vec{B}$$

$$\frac{d\vec{F}}{dq}=\vec{v}\times\vec{B}$$

$$\int\frac{d\vec{F}}{dq} \cdot ds=\int(\frac{d\vec{s}}{dt}\times\vec{B}) \cdot ds$$

from here, I went about it two different ways:

1.) Here I assumed everything was at right angles and got rid of all the vectors and vector products

$$\varepsilon=\int \frac{ds}{dt}B ds=\int \frac{ds}{dt}B \frac{ds}{dt}dt$$By u substitution

$$u=\frac{ds}{dt}, du=dt$$
$$\varepsilon=\int B(u^2)du=\frac{Bv^3}{3}$$

where v = ds/dtThat was the first way i went about it, but i didn't feel any closer to Faraday's law.

2.) Here I left the vectors alone on the RHS; I figured since \hat{v} and d\hat{s} were perpendicular, the quantity (\vec{v}s) would be a time derivative of the area formed

$$\varepsilon=\int\frac{ds}{dt}B ds=\int(\vec{v}\times\vec{B}) \cdot d\vec{s}=\dot{A}B$$

$$\varepsilon=\frac{BA}{dt}$$

don't know where the minus sign is; probably was supposed to do something with the cross product, but didn't know what.Well I got a lot further with the second "method," but is this a valid derivation? and what went wrong with the first method?
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Oh! PS, well, more like pre-script... my goal is to derive faraday's induction law from lorentz force law
 
Thread 'Inducing EMF Through a Coil: Understanding Flux'
Thank you for reading my post. I can understand why a change in magnetic flux through a conducting surface would induce an emf, but how does this work when inducing an emf through a coil? How does the flux through the empty space between the wires have an effect on the electrons in the wire itself? In the image below is a coil with a magnetic field going through the space between the wires but not necessarily through the wires themselves. Thank you.
I was using the Smith chart to determine the input impedance of a transmission line that has a reflection from the load. One can do this if one knows the characteristic impedance Zo, the degree of mismatch of the load ZL and the length of the transmission line in wavelengths. However, my question is: Consider the input impedance of a wave which appears back at the source after reflection from the load and has traveled for some fraction of a wavelength. The impedance of this wave as it...
Back
Top