Derivative of inverse trig function absolute value?

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The derivative of y = arctan(x^(1/2)) is calculated using the formula for the derivative of arctan, resulting in dy/dx = 1/(1+abs(x)) * (1/2)x^(-1/2). However, the textbook presents the derivative without the absolute value, which raises questions about the treatment of x^(1/2). The discussion clarifies that x^(1/2) is defined only for non-negative x, making the absolute value unnecessary in this context. Since the function is undefined for negative x, the derivative can be expressed without the absolute value. This resolution highlights the importance of domain considerations in calculus.
quark001
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Find the derivative of y = arctan(x^(1/2)).

Using the fact that the derivative of arctanx = 1/(1+x^2) I got:

dy/dx = 1/(1+abs(x)) * (1/2)x^(-1/2)

But my textbook gives it without the absolute value sign. I don't understand why because surely x^(1/2) squared is the absolute value of x and not simply x?
 
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x^(1/2) is well-defined for positive x only (unless you work with complex numbers). If you don't have any negative numbers, ...
 
you have to consider the signs of the trigo identities
 
Oh okay. The function is undefined for negative x to begin with... Stupid question.
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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