fairy._.queen
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Hi all!
From Wirtinger derivatives, given z=x+iy and indicating as \overline{z} the complex conjugate, I get:
\frac{\partial\overline{z}}{\partial z}=\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{\partial (x-iy)}{\partial x}-i\frac{\partial (x-iy)}{\partial y}\right)=0
This puzzles me, because I cannot see why a number and its complex conjugate could be independent variables.
Thank you in advance!
From Wirtinger derivatives, given z=x+iy and indicating as \overline{z} the complex conjugate, I get:
\frac{\partial\overline{z}}{\partial z}=\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{\partial (x-iy)}{\partial x}-i\frac{\partial (x-iy)}{\partial y}\right)=0
This puzzles me, because I cannot see why a number and its complex conjugate could be independent variables.
Thank you in advance!