Why Do These Derivatives Appear Unequal?

[Icebreaker]

"Let F(x,y)=( -y/(x^2+y^2),x/(x^2+y^2))

(a)Show that \frac{\partial F_1}{\partial y}=\frac{\partial F_2}{\partial x} except at the origin."

Is it me or are they not actually equal?

 

[Icebreaker]

Nevermind.