Chombo said:
This may be a weird question, but oh well. Way back during the Scientific Revolution it would have been possible to define mass as acceleration divided by force right? Then you'd have F = a/m, and the units for force would be different than they are now.
It's actually a good idea. Does it mean, mass is generated after a force gives you an acceleration? It will also mean, massless particles can accelerate whenever they 'wish' without force -- this is violation to 1st law... so it's a nice question to probe.
Explanation:
m = F/a. (definition)
So when there's no force, mass = 0/a = 0, provided a != 0 .. Particles, if they have acceleration without force, they are massless, so if we find a massless particle, it can actually violate first law.
If F = 0, a = 0, m=0/0 , means undefined. therefore, for mass to appear as something real, there must be first force, and resultant (?) acceleration.
Yet another point. Mass've been the key between force and acceleration. Since mass is now an 'aftereffect' of F and a, what's the key between them?
Your question is very interesting to think.
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