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Hi. I believe this may have been addressed previously but I wanted to make sure since I don't think it was completed.
Hi I know that differentiating sin = cos , and differentiating cos = -sin. Time to prove it.
Q3:
Prove that: [itex]\frac{d}{{dz}}\sin z = \cos z[/itex]
We know the McLaurin form for sin is:
[itex]
\sum\limits_{n = 0}^\infty {( - 1)^n } \frac{{z^{2n+1} }}{{(2n+1)!}} = z - z^3/3! + z^5/5! - z^7/7! +...[/itex]
differentiating sin term by term i get:
[itex]1 -3z^2/3! + 5z^4/5! - 7z^6/7! +...[/itex] =
[itex]1 -z^2/2! + z^4/4! - z^6/6! +...[/itex] =
cos z
would this be considered a "sufficient proof" . Even though I have only proved the first few terms, I am guessing we can just assume the rest is correct by the theory of induction.?
Hi I know that differentiating sin = cos , and differentiating cos = -sin. Time to prove it.
Q3:
Prove that: [itex]\frac{d}{{dz}}\sin z = \cos z[/itex]
We know the McLaurin form for sin is:
[itex]
\sum\limits_{n = 0}^\infty {( - 1)^n } \frac{{z^{2n+1} }}{{(2n+1)!}} = z - z^3/3! + z^5/5! - z^7/7! +...[/itex]
differentiating sin term by term i get:
[itex]1 -3z^2/3! + 5z^4/5! - 7z^6/7! +...[/itex] =
[itex]1 -z^2/2! + z^4/4! - z^6/6! +...[/itex] =
cos z
would this be considered a "sufficient proof" . Even though I have only proved the first few terms, I am guessing we can just assume the rest is correct by the theory of induction.?