Directional Derivative Equal to Zero

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves finding the direction in which the directional derivative of the function f(x,y) = (x² - y²) / (x² + y²) at the point (1,1) is equal to zero. This relates to the concept of gradients and directional derivatives in multivariable calculus.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the calculation of the gradient at the specified point and explore what vectors would yield a directional derivative of zero. There is consideration of both valid and invalid vectors, including the zero vector and its implications.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, questioning the validity of certain vectors as directions and exploring the implications of their choices. There is acknowledgment of the complexity of the problem and a recognition that multiple directions may yield a zero derivative.

Contextual Notes

There is some uncertainty regarding the interpretation of the problem, particularly whether it seeks a unique direction or allows for multiple valid answers. The discussion also touches on the nature of the zero vector in the context of directional derivatives.

Parmenides
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The problem states:

"In what direction is the directional derivative of f(x,y) = \frac{x^2 - y^2}{x^2 + y^2} at (1,1) equal to zero?"

I know that ##D_uf = \nabla{f}\cdot{{\bf{u}}}##. I believe the problem simply is asking for me to determine what vector ##{\bf{u}}## will yield zero. Thus:
\nabla{f} = \left\langle\frac{4xy^2}{{(x^2 + y^2)}^2},\frac{-4{x^2}y}{{(x^2 + y^2)}^2}\right\rangle
At the point (1,1), we get ##\nabla{f} = \left\langle{1},{-1}\right\rangle##. From here, I think that a vector taken with the dot product of ##\left\langle{1},{-1}\right\rangle## to give zero would be ##\left\langle{1},{1}\right\rangle##. I'm not sure if it's that simple though because I could also say that ##\left\langle{0},{0}\right\rangle## gives zero, too. Perhaps my justification is flawed? Much appreciated.
 
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Assuming your derivative is right it looks good except why would you say <0,0> gives zero? Also besides <1,1>, what about its opposite?
 
Assuming your derivative is right it looks good except why would you say <0,0> gives zero? Also besides <1,1>, what about its opposite?

True. I guess I was thinking that the problem was seeking a single answer. As for the former, ##\left\langle{0},{0}\right\rangle \cdot \left\langle{1},{-1}\right\rangle = 0##, but I suppose that's not really even a "direction" at all... ><
 
Parmenides said:
True. I guess I was thinking that the problem was seeking a single answer. As for the former, ##\left\langle{0},{0}\right\rangle \cdot \left\langle{1},{-1}\right\rangle = 0##, but I suppose that's not really even a "direction" at all... ><

While it's true that ##\left\langle{0},{0}\right\rangle \cdot \left\langle{1},{-1}\right\rangle = 0##, what point ##(x,y)## have you found where ##\nabla f(x,y) = \langle 0,0\rangle##?
 

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