Do intersecting circles always have equal angles at the circumference?

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The discussion centers on whether the common chord of two intersecting circles subtends equal angles at the circumference in both circles. Participants note that moving point D along its circle keeps angle ADC constant, while questioning if it equals angle ABC in the other circle. One user proposes that angle ADC equals angle ABC only when the centers of the circles form a rhombus, implying specific conditions for equality. A proof is suggested to be incomplete, indicating a need for further clarification on the conditions under which the angles are equal. The conversation highlights the complexity of angle relationships in intersecting circles and the need for precise geometric conditions.
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I was wondering if the common chord of two intersecting circles subtends an equal angle in both circles at the circumference (in no special cases i.e different radii circles etc)

If not, are there any special case(s) where this would work, making these two triangles similar or ABDC is a kite/special quadrilateral...

(see diagram please)

Thanks!
 

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If you move D along its circle, the angle doesn't change.
 
Yes, but is angle ADC equal to the angle subtended by the same chord in the other circle (angle ABC)
 
robphy said:
If you move D along its circle, the angle doesn't change.

mattg443 said:
Yes, but is angle ADC equal to the angle subtended by the same chord in the other circle (angle ABC)

Did you try looking at the picture if you move D like robphy suggested??
 
when D is in the circle, ABC=ADC

I have come up with a proof which says otherwise to robphy for when B and D are on different circles, UNLESS is it is missing a link (which is likely)

I added a centre to each of the circles and found that angle ADC is only equal to angle ABC is AO1CO2 (where O1 & 02 are the centres of the circles) is a rhombus (opposite angles equal) so that 2α=2β

Let my know the missing link I am making then for it to be true for all cases, as suggested by robphy.
 

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Since ##px^9+q## is the factor, then ##x^9=\frac{-q}{p}## will be one of the roots. Let ##f(x)=27x^{18}+bx^9+70##, then: $$27\left(\frac{-q}{p}\right)^2+b\left(\frac{-q}{p}\right)+70=0$$ $$b=27 \frac{q}{p}+70 \frac{p}{q}$$ $$b=\frac{27q^2+70p^2}{pq}$$ From this expression, it looks like there is no greatest value of ##b## because increasing the value of ##p## and ##q## will also increase the value of ##b##. How to find the greatest value of ##b##? Thanks
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