Does a randomly polarized beam have higher entropy than a fully polarized beam?

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A randomly polarized beam is considered to have higher entropy than a fully polarized beam due to the greater number of possible orientations of its polarization states. Unpolarized light, which has no specific polarization direction, is associated with higher entropy compared to polarized light, as it represents more uncertainty in its properties. The discussion highlights the challenges in splitting and recombining polarized components, emphasizing that while splitting is feasible, generating a truly randomly polarized beam is complex. The relationship between polarization and entropy is tied to the statistical nature of light, where more independent degrees of freedom correspond to increased entropy. Understanding these concepts requires a grasp of thermodynamic principles, particularly as they relate to light and polarization.
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Which has lower entropy, a beam of unpolarized light, or this same beam split into polarized components?
 
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The more possibilities, for example the more possibilities for the orientation of something, the higher the entropy.
 
Phrak said:
Which has lower entropy, a beam of unpolarized light, or this same beam split into polarized components?

Wow! I've only been introduced the change of entropy as being \Delta S = \int \frac{dQ}{T} which obviously cannot be applied here.
I'd love to learn any other definition of it.
My intuition tells me that the unpolarized light is the one with higher entropy, as suggested by ericgrau.
 
Thermodynamics was my worst subject. I don't know how I managed to pass, so I'm very baffled.

If one can split an unpolarized beam into two polarized beams without significant loses, it would seem to violate the second law of thermodynamics in some way. Can someone help me overcome my ignorance?
 
Polarized light isn't as bright, that may be it. If anything changing part of the light into heat and reducing the amount of light energy (which is relatively low entropy) may increase overall entropy.
 
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Neither.

Say you arrange that one polarisation is reflected, the other transmitted, by some optic. Now, if both beams are totally reflected back, won't they perfectly recombine? Aren't the polarisations independent degrees of freedom right from the beginning?
 
cesiumfrog said:
Neither.

Say you arrange that one polarisation is reflected, the other transmitted, by some optic. Now, if both beams are totally reflected back, won't they perfectly recombine? Aren't the polarisations independent degrees of freedom right from the beginning?

Well... I did say it was my worst subject. How are they independent?
 
Recall that monochromatic radiation (of any poalrization state) does not have a thermodynamic temperature associated with it- only blackbody radiation does.

Even so, it seems logical to think a randomly polarized beam has a higher entropy than a fully polarized beam because polarization is a statistical measure of the beam properties. Splitting the randomly polarized beam into two orthogonal components is not the problem, but recombining them is- it is surprisingly tricky to generate a randomly polarized beam (usually moving ground glass surfaces or other scattering processes are involved).
 
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