Does the limit exist for a function that oscillates between 2 and -2?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the limit of a function that oscillates between 2 for rational inputs and -2 for irrational inputs as x approaches 0. Participants are exploring the implications of this behavior on the existence of the limit.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the nature of the function and its oscillation, questioning whether a limit can exist given the alternating values. Some explore the relationship between rational and irrational numbers and their implications for the limit. Others suggest using the sequential criterion for limits to analyze the situation further.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants raising questions about the setup and attempting to clarify concepts related to limits. There is an exploration of sequences that converge to 0 and how they yield different function values, indicating a lack of consensus on the limit's existence.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the assumption that the limit is being evaluated as x approaches 0, and there is some confusion regarding the definitions and properties of rational and irrational numbers in this context.

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Homework Statement


Evaluate the following limit
lim x->0 f(x) = 2, x rational, -2, x irrational

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution


I tried to draw the graph of this question but couldn't. Do you think I have a function that oscillates between 2 and -2 violently?
My best guess is that the limit doesn't exist but I want to have better explanation than mine.
 
Last edited:
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That looks like a slightly modified Dirichlet function to me. Between any 2 rational numbers is there an irrational number? And between any irrational number is there a rational number?

Also, what is this limit to? Limit as x goes to what?
 
my apology. x->0.
There's no irrational number between 2 rational numbers. Vice versa no?
 
er...

Does your last statement make sense?

Between 1 and 2 is there an irrational number?
 
When you suspect that a limit does not exist, you can make use of the sequential criterion for limits. The criterion loosely states a limit [itex]\lim_{x→c}f(x)=L[/itex] exists if and only if for every sequence [itex](x_n)[/itex] that converges to [itex]c[/itex] it follows that [itex]\lim_{n→∞}f(x_n)=L[/itex].

So if you want to prove that the limit does not exist you can do so by showing that there exist two sequences [itex](x_n)[/itex] and [itex](y_n)[/itex] that converge to [itex]c[/itex] and satisfy [itex]\lim_{n→∞}f(x_n)\neq \lim_{n→∞}f(y_n)[/itex].

Does this make sense to you? Can you construct two sequences that would work in your case?
 
Sorry. Could you explain it easier?
 
For a limit to exist, every time we make a sequence approach 0, the corresponding function values must approach the same number.

For example:

If I choose a sequence of rational numbers: 1,1/2,1/4,...

We get: f(1),f(1/2),f(1/4),...

So we get 2,2,2,... and this approaches 2.

However, if we look at e,e/2,e/4,...

We get: f(e),f(e/2),f(e/4),...

So we get -2,-2,-2,... and we get -2.

Since these are two different values, the limit does not exist.
 

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