Does there exist a function such that

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The discussion centers on the existence of a function F that satisfies the equation ΔF(g_n) = Δg_n / g_n for an arbitrary function g. Initial attempts to define F using specific values for g suggest that no such function can exist due to contradictions arising from the finite difference calculations. Participants explore whether a non-piecewise function can be generalized for g with specific values (g_0 = 1, g_1 = 2, g_2 = 1), ultimately noting that a quadratic function could fit these points. However, concerns are raised about the range of F being integers, particularly due to the division by g_n. The conversation concludes with uncertainty regarding the feasibility of defining F under the given conditions.
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If we define a finite difference operator as \Delta a_n = a_{n+1}-a_n

Can we prove or disprove the existence of a function F, F:\mathbb{Z}\rightarrow\mathbb{Z}, such that \Delta F(g_n)=\frac{\Delta g_n}{ g_n}, where g is some arbitrary function?
Edit: fixed Big typo
 
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Is that \exists g\exists F, \forall g\exists F, or \exists F\forall g?
 
\exists F\forall g
 
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suppose g_0 = 1, g_1 = 2 and g_2 = 1

Then f(2) - f(1) = \frac {g_2 - g_1} {g_1} = 1 and

f(1) - f(2) = \frac {g_3 - g_2} {g_2} = -1/2

so there can't be any F for this g
 
Can you generalize a non-piecewise function for g that has the values g_0 = 1, g_1 = 2, and g_2 = 1?
 
epkid08 said:
Can you generalize a non-piecewise function for g that has the values g_0 = 1, g_1 = 2, and g_2 = 1?

Why? Of course there is a quadratic going through these points.

Is the range of F really \mathbb{Z}?. That is a problem with the division by g_n
 
willem2 said:
Is the range of F really \mathbb{Z}?. That is a problem with the division by g_n
]

Now that I think about it, it shouldn't be.
 
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