(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); Does this improper integral converge???

I have an interesting problem that has been bothering me.

Given:

f(x)=1/x

g(x)= (any continuous, non-negative function)

g(x)<f(x)

A = (a positive constant)

I want to know:

Does the integral of g(x) from A to +infinity converge? Or is it impossible to determine?

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Dismiss Notice

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Does this improper integral converge?

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**