- #1
MathematicalPhysicist
Gold Member
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between 0-1 there are infinite number of rational numbers now between 1-2 there are also infinite number of rational numbers, how can we proove that the number of rational numbers between 0-1 equals to those between 1-2?
does the difference of the domains which equals to each other (1) has any significance?
does the difference of the domains which equals to each other (1) has any significance?