Dopey Question about Bell's theorem.

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NateTG
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Main Question or Discussion Point

For context I'm looking at:
http://www.mtnmath.com/whatrh/node80.html

Bell's theorem suggests that a hidden variable λ cannot exist, but, at least the version above makes the assumption that Λ (the set of all posible values of λ ) is a measurable domain s.t.
[tex]\int_{\Lambda} f(\lambda)d\lambda[/tex]

is well-defined.

Is there a version of Bell's theorem that does not rely on the ability to integrate the probability function of λ?
 
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NateTG
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Found it. Apparently Bell does assume that the hidden variable is in a measurable domain, and Pitowksy produced a model based on unmeasurable sets that avoids the issue.
 

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