Dismiss Notice
Join Physics Forums Today!
The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

Dopey Question about Bell's theorem.

  1. Dec 4, 2003 #1

    NateTG

    User Avatar
    Science Advisor
    Homework Helper

    For context I'm looking at:
    http://www.mtnmath.com/whatrh/node80.html

    Bell's theorem suggests that a hidden variable λ cannot exist, but, at least the version above makes the assumption that Λ (the set of all posible values of λ ) is a measurable domain s.t.
    [tex]\int_{\Lambda} f(\lambda)d\lambda[/tex]

    is well-defined.

    Is there a version of Bell's theorem that does not rely on the ability to integrate the probability function of λ?
     
    Last edited: Dec 4, 2003
  2. jcsd
  3. Dec 4, 2003 #2

    NateTG

    User Avatar
    Science Advisor
    Homework Helper

    Found it. Apparently Bell does assume that the hidden variable is in a measurable domain, and Pitowksy produced a model based on unmeasurable sets that avoids the issue.
     
Know someone interested in this topic? Share this thread via Reddit, Google+, Twitter, or Facebook

Have something to add?



Similar Discussions: Dopey Question about Bell's theorem.
  1. Questions about Bell (Replies: 129)

Loading...