# Dopey Question about Bell's theorem.

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## Main Question or Discussion Point

For context I'm looking at:
http://www.mtnmath.com/whatrh/node80.html

Bell's theorem suggests that a hidden variable &lambda; cannot exist, but, at least the version above makes the assumption that &Lambda; (the set of all posible values of &lambda; ) is a measurable domain s.t.
$$\int_{\Lambda} f(\lambda)d\lambda$$

is well-defined.

Is there a version of Bell's theorem that does not rely on the ability to integrate the probability function of &lambda;?

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