Double integral bounds after polar transformation

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around converting a double integral from Cartesian to polar coordinates, specifically focusing on determining the correct bounds for integration. The integral in question involves an exponential function and powers of variables, with the original bounds extending over the first quadrant of the Cartesian plane.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the transformation of the integral and the implications for the bounds in polar coordinates. There is confusion regarding the limits of integration, particularly the order of integration and how it relates to the original Cartesian bounds.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided insights into the reasoning behind the bounds, suggesting that the integration should be performed with respect to \( r \) first and then \( \theta \). There is an acknowledgment of the need to clarify the limits of integration based on the region described in polar coordinates.

Contextual Notes

The original integral is defined over the first quadrant, leading to specific bounds for \( r \) and \( \theta \). The discussion includes considerations of how to express the integral in a product form and the implications of switching the order of integration.

Cistra
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Homework Statement



Basically I'm just trying to convert a double integral into polar coordinates, but when I do it I get confused with my bounds.

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution



[tex]4\int_0^{\infty}\int_0^{\infty}e^{-(u^2+v^2)}u^{2x-1}v^{2y-1}dudv[/tex]

(x and y are just numbers, not variables). Then I transform the integral given polar coordinates [tex]u=r\cos\theta, v=r\sin\theta[/tex] and I get

[tex]4\int_a^b\int_c^d e^{-r^2}(r\cos\theta)^{2x-1}(r\sin\theta)^{2y-1}rdrd\theta=4\int_a^b\int_c^d e^{-r^2}r^{2(x+y)-1}\cos^{2x-1}\theta\sin^{2y-1}\theta drd\theta[/tex].

I know that [tex]a=0,b=\infty,c=0,d=\frac{\pi}{2}[/tex] so that the integral bounds are [tex]\int_0^{\infty}\int_0^{\pi/2}f(r,\theta)rdrd\theta[/tex], but I can't seem to understand the reasoning behind the bounds. Thanks for your help!
 
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In the uv-plane, the integral is over the first quadrant. Graph this region and describe it in terms of polar coordinates:

Since the region extends infinitely, the radius r goes from 0 to infinity. Since the angle [tex]\theta[/tex] is 0 on the positive u-axis and [tex]\pi/2[/tex] on the positive v-axis, [tex]\theta[/tex] goes from 0 to [tex]\pi/2[/tex].

So your bounds don't match up with their respective variables.
 
Cistra said:

Homework Statement



Basically I'm just trying to convert a double integral into polar coordinates, but when I do it I get confused with my bounds.

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution



[tex]4\int_0^{\infty}\int_0^{\infty}e^{-(u^2+v^2)}u^{2x-1}v^{2y-1}dudv[/tex]

(x and y are just numbers, not variables).
Then I transform the integral given polar coordinates [tex]u=r\cos\theta, v=r\sin\theta[/tex] and I get

[tex]4\int_a^b\int_c^d e^{-r^2}(r\cos\theta)^{2x-1}(r\sin\theta)^{2y-1}rdrd\theta=4\int_a^b\int_c^d e^{-r^2}r^{2(x+y)-1}\cos^{2x-1}\theta\sin^{2y-1}\theta drd\theta[/tex].
Cistra said:
I know that [tex]a=0,b=\infty,c=0,d=\frac{\pi}{2}[/tex] so that the integral bounds are [tex]\int_0^{\infty}\int_0^{\pi/2}f(r,\theta)drd\theta[/tex], but I can't seem to understand the reasoning behind the bounds. Thanks for your help!
Here's why you have the bounds you show.
The region of integration for the iterated integral in rectangular coordinates was the first quadrant, 0 <= x <= infinity, 0 <= y <= infinity.
The region of integration won't change in switching to polar form, but its description usually does. Your first integration is with respect to r, so you want r to range from 0 to infinity. Your second integration is with respect to theta, so you want theta to range from 0 to pi/2. Your limits of integration are switched.
 
Hrm, okay thank you. Are you saying that it's supposed to be [tex]\int_0^{\pi/2}\int_0^{\infty}f(r,\theta)rdrd\theta[/tex] rather than what I've put? Because I'm splitting this up into the product of integrals rather than evaluating the double integral for itself, so I get

[tex]\int_0^{\infty}e^{-r^2}r^{2(x+y)-1}dr\cdot\int_0^{\pi/2}\cos^{2x-1}\theta\sin^{2y-1}\theta d\theta[/tex] in order to prove that [tex]\Gamma(x)\Gamma(y)=\Gamma(x+y)B(x,y)[/tex].
 
Cistra said:
Hrm, okay thank you. Are you saying that it's supposed to be [tex]\int_0^{\pi/2}\int_0^{\infty}f(r,\theta)rdrd\theta[/tex] rather than what I've put?
Yes, because that's from the order in dr dtheta.
If you want to integrate in the reverse order, I think that will work, too, because of the uncoupled nature of your f(r, theta), which can be written as g(r) * h(theta). That will, of course, switch the limits of integration.
Cistra said:
Because I'm splitting this up into the product of integrals rather than evaluating the double integral for itself, so I get

[tex]\int_0^{\infty}e^{-r^2}r^{2(x+y)-1}dr\cdot\int_0^{\pi/2}\cos^{2x-1}\theta\sin^{2y-1}\theta d\theta[/tex] in order to prove that [tex]\Gamma(x)\Gamma(y)=\Gamma(x+y)B(x,y)[/tex].
 

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