Dual basis and kernel intersection

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the proof that the set of functionals ##\{\phi_1,...,\phi_n\}## forms a basis of the dual space ##V^*## if and only if the intersection of their kernels is trivial, i.e., ##\bigcap_{i=1}^n Nu(\phi_i)={0}##. The proof's forward direction is established by demonstrating that if the intersection is zero, then the functionals are linearly independent. The reverse direction suggests using the invertibility of the matrix formed by expressing ##\phi_i## in terms of a basis of ##V^*##. An alternative approach involves showing that if the functionals do not form a basis, a non-zero vector exists in the intersection of their kernels.

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mahler1
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The problem statement, all variable
Let ##\phi_1,...,\phi_n \in V^*## all different from the zero functional. Prove that

##\{\phi_1,...,\phi_n\}## is basis of ##V^*## if and only if ##\bigcap_{i=1}^n Nu(\phi_i)={0}##.

The attempt at a solution.

For ##→##: Let ##\{v_1,...,v_n\}## be a basis of ##V## such that ##\phi_i(v_j)=δ_{ij}##. Now let ##x \in \bigcap_{i=1}^n Nu(\phi_i)={0}##, as ##x \in V## then ##x=α_1v_1+...+α_nv_n##.
By hypothesis ##\phi_i(x)=0## for all ##1\leq i \leq n##. But this means ##0=\phi_i(x)=\phi_i(α_1v_1+...+α_nv_n)=α_i## for all ##1\leq i \leq n##, it follows ##x=0##.

I don't know how to show the other implication. For ←, in the exercise is given the suggestion: if ##\{ψ_1,...,ψ_n\}## is a basis of ##V^*##, one can try to show that the matrix obtained from writing ##\phi_1,...,\phi_n## in coordinates with respect to the basis ##\{ψ_1,...,ψ_n\}##, is an invertible matrix, I am stuck and I haven't got a clue on how to use this idea, I would like any hints or another idea to prove the remaining implication.
 
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mahler1 said:
The problem statement, all variable
Let ##\phi_1,...,\phi_n \in V^*## all different from the zero functional. Prove that

##\{\phi_1,...,\phi_n\}## is basis of ##V^*## if and only if ##\bigcap_{i=1}^n Nu(\phi_i)={0}##.

The attempt at a solution.

For ##→##: Let ##\{v_1,...,v_n\}## be a basis of ##V## such that ##\phi_i(v_j)=δ_{ij}##. Now let ##x \in \bigcap_{i=1}^n Nu(\phi_i)={0}##, as ##x \in V## then ##x=α_1v_1+...+α_nv_n##.
By hypothesis ##\phi_i(x)=0## for all ##1\leq i \leq n##. But this means ##0=\phi_i(x)=\phi_i(α_1v_1+...+α_nv_n)=α_i## for all ##1\leq i \leq n##, it follows ##x=0##.

I don't know how to show the other implication. For ←, in the exercise is given the suggestion: if ##\{ψ_1,...,ψ_n\}## is a basis of ##V^*##, one can try to show that the matrix obtained from writing ##\phi_1,...,\phi_n## in coordinates with respect to the basis ##\{ψ_1,...,ψ_n\}##, is an invertible matrix, I am stuck and I haven't got a clue on how to use this idea, I would like any hints or another idea to prove the remaining implication.
An alternative approach is to assume that \Phi = \{\phi_1, \dots, \phi_n\} is not a basis for V^{*}, and exhibit a non-zero v \in \bigcap_i \ker(\phi_i).

To that end: let \Phi' \subset \Phi be a linearly-independent subset of \Phi of maximum dimension. This \Phi' can then be extended to a basis B of V^{*}. Now consider the dual basis of B.
 
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