Efficient Methods for Evaluating Trig Integrals: Using Half Angle Formula

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the integral \(\int^{\frac{\pi}{4}}_{0} \sin^{4}x \cos^{2} x \, dx\). Participants are exploring various methods, including the half-angle formula and integration by parts, while seeking quicker approaches to solve the integral.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to use the half-angle formula for both terms but finds it time-consuming and seeks quicker methods. Another participant shares their experience with integration by parts, expressing uncertainty about their result. A third participant suggests using power-reduction formulas and proposes a method involving two integrals, A and B, to simplify the problem.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively sharing their thoughts and methods, with some expressing uncertainty about their results. The discussion includes various approaches, and while one participant praises another's method, there is no explicit consensus on the best approach yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working within the constraints of evaluating a definite integral and are considering different mathematical techniques, including power-reduction and integration by parts, without resolving the integral completely.

courtrigrad
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1. [tex]\int^{\frac{\pi}{4}}_{0} sin^{4}x\ cos^{2} x \ dx[/tex]. Would it work to use the half angle formula for both terms? I did this, it took very long. Any quick methods to evaluate this?

Thanks
 
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After 5 quick sketchy integrations by parts on a scrap of paper, I get an answer. But I don't guaranty it's not a ghost. You can try if you want. The first step is taking u=sin^4(x)cos(x) dv=cos(x)dx.

At the end, I get the integral of sin²(x) which is 0.5(x-cosxsinx)
 
Yes, you can use Power-reduction formulae to evaluate this integral. It'll be a little bit messy, however.
Or you can do it this way. Here's my approach:
Let
[tex]A = \mathop{\int} \limits_{0} ^ {\frac{\pi}{4}} \sin ^ 4 x \cos ^ 2 x dx[/tex]
And we define another definite integral:
[tex]B = \mathop{\int} \limits_{0} ^ {\frac{\pi}{4}} \sin ^ 2 x \cos ^ 4 x dx[/tex]
Now, if we sum the 2 integrals above, we'll have:
[tex]A + B = \mathop{\int} \limits_{0} ^ {\frac{\pi}{4}} \sin ^ 4 x \cos ^ 2 x dx + \mathop{\int} \limits_{0} ^ {\frac{\pi}{4}} \sin ^ 2 x \cos ^ 4 x dx = \mathop{\int} \limits_{0} ^ {\frac{\pi}{4}} \sin ^ 2 x \cos ^ 2 x (\sin ^ 2 x + \cos ^ 2 x) dx[/tex]
[tex]= \mathop{\int} \limits_{0} ^ {\frac{\pi}{4}} \sin ^ 2 x \cos ^ 2 x dx = \frac{1}{4} \mathop{\int} \limits_{0} ^ {\frac{\pi}{4}} \sin ^ 2 (2x) dx = ...[/tex]
And we subtract B from A to get:
[tex]A - B = \mathop{\int} \limits_{0} ^ {\frac{\pi}{4}} \sin ^ 4 x \cos ^ 2 x dx - \mathop{\int} \limits_{0} ^ {\frac{\pi}{4}} \sin ^ 2 x \cos ^ 4 x dx = \mathop{\int} \limits_{0} ^ {\frac{\pi}{4}} \sin ^ 2 x \cos ^ 2 x (\sin ^ 2 x - \cos ^ 2 x) dx[/tex]
[tex]= - \mathop{\int} \limits_{0} ^ {\frac{\pi}{4}} \sin ^ 2 x \cos ^ 2 x \cos (2x) dx = - \frac{1}{4} \mathop{\int} \limits_{0} ^ {\frac{\pi}{4}} \sin ^ 2 (2x) \cos (2x) dx = ...[/tex]
The two integrals above are easier to evaluate than the original one, right?
Having A + B, and A - B, can you work out A? :)
 
Last edited:
That was ingenious!
 

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