Eigenvalue problem using Bessel Functions

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kidmode01
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Homework Statement



Bessels equation of order n is given as the following:

[tex]y'' + \frac{1}{x}y' + (1 - \frac{n^2}{x^2})y = 0[/tex]

In a previous question I proved that Bessels equation of order n=0 has the following property:

[tex]J_0'(x) = -J_1(x)[/tex]

Where J(x) are Bessel functions of order n=0 and order n=1 respectively.

Use this property to solve the eigenvalue problem:

[tex]\frac{1}{r}\frac{d}{dr}(r(\frac{d\phi}{dr}))+ \lambda^2\phi = 0[/tex]

where we have:

[tex]0 < r < a[/tex]

[tex]\frac{d\phi}{dr}(a) = 0[/tex]

[tex]\phi(0)[/tex] bounded

Homework Equations



The question about the special property:
The power series for the nth Bessel function is

[tex]J_n(x) = (\frac{x}{n})^n\sum_{m=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^m}{m!(n+m)!}(\frac{x}{2})^{2m}[/tex]

Use this to show that:

[tex]J_{n+1}(x) = -x^n\frac{d}{dx}(x^{-n}J_n(x))[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution



*Phew, that was a lot of latex!*

I've tried expanding:

[tex]\frac{1}{r}\frac{d}{dr}(r(\frac{d\phi}{dr}))+ \lambda^2\phi = 0[/tex]

using the product rule, into something more familiar to see if I can make some sort of relation to the property I am supposed to use. Any help is appreciated, I've spent a lot of time rearranging terms and trying to relate things but can't quite put my finger on it.
 
on Phys.org
In case anyone is interested, I think this is right:

Like I was trying before we expand:

[tex]\frac{1}{r}\frac{d}{dr}(r(\frac{d\phi}{dr}))+ \lambda^2\phi = 0[/tex]

we get:

[tex]\phi''+\frac{1}{r}\phi'+\lambda^2\phi = 0[/tex]

To get this into a more "familiar" form of bessels equation, multiply everything by [tex]r^2[/tex]:

[tex]r^2\phi"" + r\phi'+(r^2\lambda^2-0^2)\phi = 0[/tex]

Which is exactly Bessel's equation of order n=0.

Digging into a textbook we can learn that the following is a solution to this equation:

[tex]\phi(r) = C_1J_0(\lambda r) + C_2Y_0(\lambda r)[/tex]

Since in our problem we are told that [tex]\phi(0)[/tex] is bounded. But looking into our text we find that [tex]Y_0(x)[/tex] is some ghastly function with [tex]ln(x)[/tex] inside of it. Since [tex]ln(x)[/tex] is not bounded at 0, we can conclude that [tex]C_2 = 0[/tex].

Our second condition says:

[tex]\frac{d\phi}{dr}(a) = 0[/tex]

then we must have

[tex]\phi'(a) = -\lambda C_1J_0(\lambda a) = 0[/tex]

So we'll throw out the case that [tex]C_1[/tex] is zero because it isn't interesting. But if [tex]C_1[/tex] is not equal to zero then we either require [tex]\lambda = 0[/tex] or [tex]J_0(\lambda a) = 0[/tex]

Then if [tex]x_1, x_2, x_3, . . .[/tex] are roots of [tex]J_0(\lambda a)[/tex] we get [tex]\lambda = \frac{x_1}{a}, \frac{x_2}{a}, \frac{x_3}{a} . . .[/tex]

If I'm missing something or this is completely wrong, someone let me know! :)