Electric Potential: Why Is It Equal in Both Spheres?

AI Thread Summary
When two conductive spheres are connected by a wire, they must reach the same electric potential due to the properties of conductors in electrostatic equilibrium. This means that any potential difference would result in current flow until equilibrium is achieved, equalizing the voltage across both spheres. The total charge of the system remains constant, but the distribution of charge may differ based on the radii of the spheres. Therefore, while the charges on each sphere may not be equal, the electric potential must be the same. Understanding this principle is crucial for solving problems related to electric circuits and electrostatics.
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Homework Statement


Imagine two conductor spheres with radius r1 and r2, so that r1 > r2.
The two spheres are connected by a infinitely long wire, and the total charge of the system is Q.
What's the ratio of the potential of the first sphere by the potential of the second sphere?



Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I solved the problem. However to accomplish that I had to say that the electric potential is equal in both spheres, and that's what I'm having trouble understanding.
Why is the electric potential equal in both spheres?

Thanks in advance!
 
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The two spheres are connected by a conductor.
 
Simon Bridge said:
The two spheres are connected by a conductor.

Could you be more specific?
I know that they are connected by a conductor, but why does that result in them having the same charge?
 
Any two conductors which are electrically connected must have the same voltage. (NOT charge.)
You know this... if only from your work on electric circuits.

If there is a potential difference between the spheres then what would you expect to have in the wire joining them?
 

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