Mentz114 said:
All IFR's will see the same overall force.
In order to convince me otherwise, you'll have to show a calculation. I'm not going to work this out because I already know the answer.
You might find this helpful
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electromagnetic_tensor
You're trying to change the subject. Let's deal with your misunderstanding of the original problem.
Fair enough. In what follows, let “G” stand for the Greek letter “gamma” (NOT the gravitational constant).
Let q1 = q2 = q > 0 be at rest (1) at the origin of IRF K, and (2) on the positive y-axis of K respectively. B = 0 everywhere. If E is the field of q1 at q2, then the Lorentz force experienced by q2 is electrostatic; it points toward positive y and has the magnitude
F = qE.
Let K’ move in the positive x-direction of K at speed v. Then q1 and q2 both move in the negative x’-direction of K’ at speed v. The Lorentz force in K’ has magnitude
F’ = q(E’ + vB’),
where B’ points in the negative z’-direction and vB’ points in the negative y’-direction. qE’ points in the positive y’-direction. The values of E’ and B’ can be obtained from the standard EM field transformations (See Griffiths, 10.119). According to these transformations,
E’ = GE, (where G = 1 / ((1-v^2/c^2)^(1/2))
B’ = -GvE / c^2.
Thus
F = q (GE – vGvE/c^2)
= GqE(1-v^2/c^2)
=qE / G
=F (1-v^2/c^2)^(1/2)
In brief, the Lorentz force in K’ still points toward positive y’, but its magnitude is less than the Lorentz force in K.
Since each particle moves with a common, constant velocity in K’, the net force on each particle must be zero in K’, quite as it is in K. Evidently the gravitational, attractive force in K’ is only 1/G what it is in K. This equilibrium condition must generally hold for all orientations of q1 and q2 in K. It suggests (a) that there is a counterpart to EM’s B field when masses move, and (b) that the total force between masses is specified by a counterpart to the Lorentz force law of EM.