Expected Value/Variance of a Discrete Random Variable

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves drawing cards from a standard deck and calculating the expected value of a function based on the number of aces drawn. It is situated within the context of discrete random variables and probability theory.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the binomial distribution of the random variable X and the function Y defined in terms of X. There are attempts to apply the expected value formula and questions about the correct application of the probability function.

Discussion Status

Some participants express confusion regarding the application of the formula for expected value and the probability function. Others provide guidance on calculating the expected value using the defined functions, while one participant indicates they have arrived at an answer but are uncertain about the reasoning behind it.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of multiple attempts and a sense of frustration regarding understanding the problem, as well as a reference to the specific nature of the homework task.

KingCalc
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Homework Statement


A card is drawn at random from an ordinary deck of 52 cards and its face value is noted, and then this card is returned to the deck. This procedure is done 4 times all together. Let [tex]X[/tex] be the total number of aces selected and [tex]Y = \cos(\pi X/2).[/tex]

[tex]E[Y] = ?[/tex]

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution


Twenty attempts, still no right answer. I've come to the conclusion that I just missed the boat with this one.
 
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So X is binomial(4,1/13), right? So you know its discrete probability function p(x) for x = 0 .. 4. And you have [itex]Y = \cos(\pi X/2)[/itex] which I will call f(X). Why not use the formula:

[tex]E(f(X)) = \sum_{x=0}^4 f(x)p(x)[/tex]
 
I guess it's just me being dumb but I really don't get this, even with the formula put right out in front of me.

Edit: I thought it would make sense that I just sum up [tex]p(1)\times\cos(\pi 1/2)+p(2)\times\cos(\pi 2/2)+p(3)\times\cos(\pi 3/2)+p(4)\times\cos(\pi 4/2)[/tex]

... which (I think) would be...

[tex](4/52)(48/52)(48/52)(48/52)\times\cos(\pi 1/2)+(4/52)(4/52)(48/52)(48/52)\times\cos(\pi 2/2)+(4/52)(4/52)(4/52)(48/52)\times\cos(\pi 3/2)+(4/52)(4/52)(4/52)(4/52)\times\cos(\pi 4/2)[/tex]

... but I guess I'm wrong?
 
Last edited:
KingCalc said:
I guess it's just me being dumb but I really don't get this, even with the formula put right out in front of me.

Am I correct in assuming that you do know the formula for p(x) given that X is a binomial random variable?

p(x) = ?

And the formula for f(x) is given to you. So calculate f(0)p(0) up through f(4)p(4) and add them up.
 
Okay I got the answer, even though I don't understand why it works, but I guess I can find that out later. Thanks for the help.
 

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